2005 ICFAI University M.B.A Suggested Answers Financial Accounting (MB131): January 2005 Question paper
Suggested Answers Financial Accounting (MB131): January 2005 1. Answer : (b ) Reason : Accrual basis is used under hybrid system of accounting for expenses and cash basis is used for revenue used. < TOP > 2. Answer : (b) Reason : Financial accounting principles assume the going concern concept and hence the fixed assets will be valued at cost less depreciation. However, in the given case, the concern decided to close its operations. Hence, the fixed assets should be indicated in the balance sheet at net realizable value. Hence the answer is (b). The assets are not recorded at historical cost. Cost or market value, whichever is lower is used to record stock-in-trade but not fixed assets. The replacement cost is irrelevant when the firm is going to discontinue its operations. < TOP > 3. Answer : (d) Reason : Incurring liability is a source of fund but not a use of fund. Acquiring assets, incurring expenses, incurring losses and paying dividends are all uses of funds. < TOP > 4. Answer : (d) Reason : Real accounts represent the assets and properties of a business is the correct statement and (d) is the correct answer. < TOP > 5. Answer : (b ) Reason : The losses from sale of capital assets should be deducted fom the revenue to ascertain the net income The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be disclosed in the accounts In keeping with the principle of materiality unimportant items are either left out or merged with other items. The comparison of the results of one accounting period with that in the past is possible when the convention of consistency is adhered to by the business. The income or loss of business is always computed with relevance to a specific period called the accounting period. < TOP > 6. Answer : (e ) Reason : Prior period items are to be debited to Profit &Loss A/c and its impact on the current year profit should be shown in the notes to the accounts. < TOP > 7. Answer : (b) Reason : Dr. Sundry Creditors Cr. Date Particulars Rs. Date Particulars Rs. 2003-2004 To Cash 1,80,000 April 01, 2003 By Balance b/d 80,000 To discount 8,000 March 31, 2004 To Balance c/d 90,000 2003-2004 By Purchases (balancing figure) 1,98,000 2,78,000 2,78,000 < TOP > 8. Answer : (e) Reason : Rs. Payment made to creditors 10,00,000 Discount received 10,000 Closing balance 40,000 10,50,000 Less : Credit purchases 9,25,000 Opening balance 1,25,000 < TOP > 9. Answer : (c) Reason : Cost of goods = Purchases – Returns outward + Freight in = Rs.2,10,000 – Rs.22,000 + Rs.30,000 = Rs.2,18,000 < TOP > 10. Answer : (d) Reason : A mistake of overcasting of purchases day book increases cost of sales and decreases gross profit. (d) is < TOP > 18 the correct answer. > 11. Answer : (d) Reason : The thumb rule is that all expenses and assets are showing debit balances and incomes and liabilities credit balances. Carriage outward being an expense should be listed in debt column of the Trial Balance. < TOP > 12. Answer : (b) Reason : Bank Reconciliation Statement Particulars Rs. Rs. Overdraft balance as per Pass book 20,000 Add : Cheques issued to Mr. Y but not presented for payment 4,000 Rent deposited by Mr. Z directly into the bank 10,000 Interest on debentures directly collected by bank 10,000 24,000 44,000 Less : Cheque deposited, yet to be realised 15,000 15,000 Overdraft balance as per cash book 29,000 < TOP > 13. Answer : (a) Reason : The withdrawal of cash from the bank will figure in both and cash columns of a cash book and such entries are called contra entries. (a) is the correct answer. < TOP > 14. Answer : (c) Reason : Particulars Profit increased (Rs.) Profit decreased (Rs.) Salaries overstated (Profit understated) 15,000 Repairs understated (Profit overstated) 7,000 Income of investment understated (Profit understated) 7,000 7,000 22,0000 Net profit understated/decreased 15,000 -- 22,000 22,000 < TOP > 15. Answer : (b) Reason : i. Difference in sales a/c because of taking Rs.58,726 instead of Rs.58,762=Rs.36 whereby credit is less by the amount ii. Discount not debited Rs.52 on account of which debit balance is less by the amount iii. Sale of old furniture credited to machinery a/c instead of furniture is not affecting the agreement of trial balance iv. Sale twice debited to S a/c has increased the debit balance by Rs.250 So excess debit Rs.250 plus short credit of Rs.36 minus short debit Rs.52 makes debit total more by Rs.234 of the Trial balance < TOP > 16. Answer : (c) Reason : A credit sale of Rs.2,000 was wrongly entered in the purchases book. This mistake will result in a decrease in the gross profit of Rs.4,000. < TOP > 17. Answer : (a) Reason :The mistake of posting of an item to the correct side of a wrong account will not affect the agreement of a trial balance . Thus, the total of credit side will be the total of debit side too. Thus, before and after rectification the total of the debit side will be Rs.43,570. (a) is the correct answer. < TOP > 19 18. Answer : (c) Reason : Net Profit of Joy Ltd. for the year ending March 31, 2004 : Dr. Cr. Particulars Rs. Rs. Particulars Rs. Rs. To Purchases 2,85,000 By Cash sales 4,00,000 Add : Omitted to be recorded 15,000 3,00,000 Less : Wrong Credit 51,000 3,49,000 To Decrease in inventory 40,000 To Gross Profit 9,000 3,49,000 3,49,000 To Sales Commission 12,000 By Gross Profit 9,000 + Accrued 6,000 18,000 By Rent received 55,000 To Depreciation 30,000 Less : received in advance 2,500 52,500 To Net Profit 13,500 61,500 61,500 The net profit is Rs.13,500 < TOP > 19. Answer : (e) Reason : When goods are lost and insurance company accepts the claim only to a certain extent, profit and loss account should be debited with net loss, Trading account will be credited with cost of goods lost and insurance company account will be debited with the amount of claim accepted. Thus the entry is Profit and Loss account Dr. Rs.2,000 Insurance company account Dr. Rs.8,000 To Trading account Rs. 10,000 < TOP > 20. Answer : (c) Reason : The net profit Rs.1,70,000 – Rs.15,000(Profit on sale of building which is carried to P& L account (Rs.45,000 –Rs.30,000) = Rs.1,55,000. The profit from operations will be Rs.1,55,000. < TOP > 21. Answer : (c) Reason : Balance Sheet of Nilgir Ltd as on March 31, 2003. Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs. Share Capital 5,76,900 Land & building 4,36,000 Profit and loss account 1,33,731 Office equipment 1,99,700 12% Bank Loan 1,50,000 Less : depreciation 19,970 1,79,730 Add : Outstanding interest 15,000 1,65,000 Furniture 2,00,000 Sundry creditors 50,000 Less : depreciation 30,000 1,70,000 Less : Closing stock 38,000 Debtors set off 8,000 Sundry debtors 55,000 Provision for discount on creditors 720 41,280 Less : Provision for discount on debtors 779 Creditors set off 8,000 46,221 Bills payable 10,000 Bills receivable 9,000 Cash at bank 23,500 Petty cash 210 Accrued commission 13,000 Prepaid printing charges 1,850 Cash on hand 9,400 9,26,911 9,26,911 < TOP > 22. Answer : (b) Reason : Dr. Trading and profit and loss account for the year ended March 31, 2004 Cr. < TOP > 20 Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs. To Opening stock 90,000 By Sales 6,35,000 To Purchases 4,56,000 By Closing stock 75,000 To Gross profit 1,64,000 7,10,000 7,10,000 To Salaries 86,000 By Gross profit 1,64,000 To other expenses 73,000 By Net loss 70,000 To Depreciation 75,000 2,34,000 2,34,000 Balance sheet as on March 31, 2003 Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs. Share capital 6,00,000 Fixed assets 5,00,000 Less : depreciation 75,000 4,25,000 Sundry creditors 32,000 Sundry debtors 45,000 Short tem loan 36,000 Closing stock 75,000 Cash and bank 53,000 Net loss 70,000 6,68,000 6,68,000 23. Answer : (c) Reason : Dividends represent the amount earmarked to distribute to the shareholders. Hence (c) is the answer. The amount of taxes is to be deducted from profit before tax and the amount to be transferred to reserves and other appropriations, if any, need to be made from profits after tax. Operating profit is the amount of profit other than non-operating surplus. Interest, taxes, other appropriations should be made to operating profit. Hence this is not the amount earmarked for distribution to shareholders. < TOP > 24. Answer : (c) Reason : Computation of inventory : Particulars Rs. Rs. Inventory value as per books 1,50,000 Add Purchases received but not accounted 10,000 Sales yet to be delivered 30,000 40,000 1,90,000 Less Returns outward 5,000 Amount overcast in stock sheet 6,000 11,000 Inventory as per physical stock 1,79,000 < TOP > 25. Answer : (d) Reason : Particulars Rs. Opening balance of sundry debtors 47,000 Add : Credit sales 6,75,000 7,22,000 Less : Closing balance of Sundry debtors 70,000 Cash collected from customers 6,52,000 < TOP > 26. Answer : (d) Reason : Particulars Rs. Opening Provision 4,000 Bad debts to be written off 10,000 Shortfall of provision 6,000 Provision required 5% of Rs.1,40,000 (Rs.1,50,000 – Rs.10,000) 7,000 < TOP > 21 Provision required 5% of Rs.1,40,000 (Rs.1,50,000 – Rs.10,000) 7,000 Charge against profit and loss account 13,000 27. Answer : (a) Reason : Dr. Provision for Bad debts Account Cr. Date Particulars Rs. Date Particulars Rs. March 31, 2004 To A 12,000 April 01, 2003 By Opening balance 30,000 To B 10,000 March 31, 2004 By P & L a/c 34,000 To C 7,000 To Closing balance 35,000 64,000 64,000 < TOP > 28. Answer : (d) Reason : For valuation of relatively expensive items whose physical identification at various stages is possible, Specific Identification method is most suited. Where the inventories are vast and physical identification is difficult, the method is not advisable. < TOP > 29. Answer : (e) Reason : Advance payment made to suppliers for materials is not classified as inventory. Other items mentioned in (a), (b), (c) and (d) are classified as inventory in the financial statements as they are the components of inventory. < TOP > 30. Answer : (e) Reason : Opening balance of Sundry debtors Rs. 45,000 Add : Credit sales Rs.4,25,000 Rs.4,70,000 Less : Cash collected Rs.4,00,000 Rs. 70,000 Less : Closing balance of sundry debtors Rs. 50,000 Bad debts Rs. 20,000 < TOP > 31. Answer : (d) Reason : Let the rate of depreciation = x The depreciated value of machine = Rs.1,20,000 (1 – 3x) = Rs.66,000 1 – 3x = Rs.1,20,000 Rs.66,000 = 0.55 3x = 1 – 0.55 = 0.45 x = 0.45 ÷ 3 = 0.15 or 15%. Thus, the rate of depreciation = 15%. < TOP > 32. Answer : (e) Reason : Dr. Sundry Debtors Account Cr. Date Particulars Rs. Date Particulars Rs. April 01, 2003 To Balance b/d 10,000 March 31, 2004 By Returns inward a/c 1,000 March 31, 2004 To Sales a/c 1,00,000 March 31, 2004 By Cash a/c 90,000 March 31, 2004 By Bad debts a/c 500 March 31, 2004 By Discount allowed a/c 400 March 31, 2004 By Balance c/d 18,100 1,10,000 1,10,000 Dr. Provision for Bad Debts Account Cr. < TOP > 22 Date Particulars Rs. Date Particulars Rs. March 31, 2004 To Bad Debts 500 April 01, 2003 By Balance b/d 400 To Balance c/d 1,095 March 31, 2004 By Profit & Loss a/c 1,195 1,595 1,595 On March 31, 2004 the balance of sundry debtors is Rs.18,100. This amount includes Rs.200 due from a debtor who has been declared bankrupt. Therefore, provision for doubtful debts is to be created 100% on Rs.200 and 5% on Rs. 17,900 (Rs.18,100 – Rs.200) The total provision on March 31, 2004 = Rs.200 + Rs.895 + 500 = Rs.1,595 and less existing provision of Rs.400 and amount debited to profit and loss account is Rs.1,195. 33. Answer : (a) Reason : Share capital is the contribution made by the owner(s) and is regarded as a liability to the business in the nature of owner’s equity. The underlying feature for this treatment is the distinction between the owner(s) and that of the business owned by them. According to business entity concept whenever an owner brings capital into the business, the business in turn is deemed to owe the capital to the owner. As such the share capital account is treated as a liability to the business and shown under liabilities. The other concepts are not correct because (b) Money measurement concept explains that in financial accountancy, a record is made only of information that can be expressed in monetary terms and ignores other events, however significant they may be. It is silent about the treatment of share capital account. (c) Cost concept implies that in accounting all transactions are generally recorded at cost and not at market value. It does not explain why share capital account is to be treated as liability. (d) Going concern concept explains that the resources of the concern would continue to be used for the purposes for which they are meant to be used. The very categorization of assets into fixed and current presupposes the going concern concept. It does not deal about the treatment of share capital account. (e) Conservatism concept: The theme behind this principle is that recognition of revenue requires better evidence than recognition of expenses. It deals with revenues and expenses and not the share capital account. < TOP > 34. Answer : (a) Reason : Particulars 2000-01 2001-02 2002-03 2003-04 (Rs.) (Rs.) (Rs.) (Rs.) Post-tax profits 1,50,000 1,65,000 2,20,000 2,50,000 Pre-tax profits 3,00,000 3,30,000 4,40,000 5,00,000 Add: Excessive depreciation – – 10,000 – Abnormal loss – 20,000 – – 3,00,000 3,50,000 4,50,000 5,00,000 Average pre-tax profits = 3,00,000 3,50,000 4,50,000 5,00,000 4 + + + = Rs. 4,00,000 Less: Additional salaries Rs. 20,000 Rs. 3,80,000 Less: Tax @50% Rs. 1,90,000 Future maintainable profits Rs. 1,90,000 < TOP > 35. Answer : (b) Reason : Valuation of goodwill according to purchase of super profits method. a. Calculation of Capital Employed : Rs. Amount (Rs.) Assets Land and Buildings 1,75,000 Plant and machinery 90,000 < TOP > 23 Plant and machinery 90,000 Stock 1,15,000 Book debts 98,000 Less : Provision 3,000 95,000 Cash at bank 7,000 Gross total assets 4,82,000 Less : Sundry creditors 71,000 Provision for taxation 55,000 1,26,000 Capital employed 3,56,000 b. Calculation of Normal Profits : (Normal rate of return x Capital Employed)/100 12/100 X Rs.3,56,000 = Rs.42,720. c. Calculation of Future Maintainable Profits (based on profits of previous year) : Actual profit after providing tax Rs.55,000. (As the provision for taxation @ 50% is Rs.55,000, the profits would be Rs.l,10,000 and the profits after providing for taxation also would be Rs.55,000.) d. Calculation of Super Profits Rs. Actual profits 55,000 Less : Normal profits 42,720 Super profits 12,280 Valuation of goodwill on five years purchase of super profits = Rs.12,280 x 5 = Rs.61,400. 36. Answer : (a) Reason : 1999-2000 Rs. 2000-01 Rs. 2001-02 Rs. 2002-03 Rs. 2003-04 Rs. Total Rs. Profit 75000 300000 375000 450000 742500 Less: repair expenses - 30000 Add: Depreciation 1500 3000 3000 Less: profit on sale of plant 22,500 Adjusted profits 75000 300000 346500 453000 723000 Weights 1 2 3 4 5 Profits × weights 75000 600000 1039500 1812000 3615000 7141500 Weighted average profits = Rs.71,41,500 / 15 = Rs.4,76,100 < TOP > 37. Answer : (e) Reason : Debenture amount–500 units × Rs.100 Rs.50,000 Less: Discount – 10% Rs. 5,000 Rs. 45,000 These Rs.45,000 debentures are converted into equity shares of Rs.100 each at a premium of Rs.20. So, the amount of equity share per unit = Rs.100 + Rs.20 = Rs.120 No. of equity shares to be issued = Rs.45, 000 Rs.120 = 375 shares. < TOP > 38. Answer : (a) Reason : Year Profit (Rs.) Weight Product 1999-2000 42,364 1 42,364 2000-01 43,456 2 86,912 2001-02 53,126 3 1,59,378 < TOP > 24 2001-02 53,126 3 1,59,378 2002-03 56,789 4 2,27,156 2003-04 62,354 5 3,11,770 15 8,27,580 Average profit = Rs.8,27,580 / 15 = Rs.55,172 39. Answer : (a) Reason : Share premium is received along with the application money and the share premium once received cannot be reversed. Hence, the share premium received on 1,00,000 shares at the rate of Rs.2 per share is un affected on account of forfeiture of shares. < TOP > 40. Answer : (c) Reason : Amount transferred to capital reserve is Rs.800. Working Note: Particulars Rs. Amount received on 200 shares on forfeiture(200 x Rs.5) 1,000 Less: Amount of discount allowed on 200 shares which were reissued (200 x Re-1.) 200 Amount to be transferred to Capital Reserve 800 < TOP > 41. Answer : (b) Reason : Dr. Cash account Cr. Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs. To Balance b/d. 50,000 By Preference shareholders (Rs.3,00,000 x 110%) 3,30,000 To Investments 2,00,000 By Balance c/d. 25,000 To Equity shares (including premium) 1,05,000 3,55,000 355,000 No. of equity shares = Rs.1,05,000 / Rs.105 = 1000 shares. < TOP > 42. Answer : (b) Reason : The shares were issued at a discount of 10% i.e. they were issued for Rs.90 per share. Ramya failed to pay the final call of Rs.30. Hence she has paid Rs.60 (Rs.90 – Rs.30). The amount to be credited to shares forfeited account is Rs.60 x 300 shares = Rs.18,000 < TOP > 43. Answer : (d) Reason : As per the Companies Amendment Act, 1988, only preference shares, which are redeemable within 20 years, can be issued < TOP > 44. Answer : (c) Reason : Particulars Rs. Rs. Land and building 3,60,000 Plant and machinery (Rs.2,70,000 × Rs.90%) 2,43,000 Furniture 1,80,000 Inventories 90,000 Sundry Debtors (Rs.60,000 × 95%) 57,000 Loans and advances 75,000 Cash 10,000 Bank 35,000 Less: 10,50,000 Sundry creditors 50,000 Short term loan 80,000 1,30,000 Net assets 9,20,000 Value of share = Rs.9, 20,000 Rs.18.40 50,000 = < TOP > 45. Answer : (b) Reason : In case of issue of debentures at discount and redeemable at a premium, discount on issue of debentures a/c should be debited with the amount of discount, loss on issue of debentures a/c should be debited with < TOP > 25 the amount of premium payable on redemption and Bank account should be debited with actual amount received. Corresponding credit should be given to debentures a/c with face value of debentures and premium on redemption of debentures a/c with amount of premium. Hence the entry is Rs. Rs. Bank a/c Dr. 1,80,000 Discount on issue of debentures a/c Dr. 20,000 Loss on issue of debentures a/c Dr. 10,000 To 12% Debentures a/c 2,00,000 To Premium on redemption of debentures 10,000 46. Answer : (e) Reason : Forfeited shares account = Forfeited shares x Amount paid by the shareholder = 60 x (Rs.6 + 3 – 2 = Rs.7) = 420 No.of forfeited reissued shares = 36 shares (60x60%) @ Rs.7 = Rs.252 Credit balance in the share forfeiture account = Rs.420 – Rs.252 = Rs.168. < TOP > 47. Answer : (c) Reason : Cute Ltd. Intrinsic Value of Shares (Rs.) 50,000 equity shares @ Rs.10 each 5,00,000 2,000, 8% preference shares @ Rs.100 each 2,00,000 Reserves and surplus 30,000 External liabilities 1,20,000 Sundry creditors 60,000 Total liabilities 9,10,000 (Rs.) Total assets 9,10,000 Less : Fictitious assets (10,000) (preliminary expenses) Sundry creditors (60,000) Extenral liabilities (1,20,000) Preference shares (2,00,000) Net assets available for equity shareholders 5,20,000 Intrinsic value of shares = Net assets availabe for equityshareholders Number of equityshares = Rs.5,20,000 50,000 = Rs.10.40. < TOP > 48. Answer : (a) Reason : Present share capital Rs.50,00,000 Rights issue Rs.50,00,000 x 2 5 Rs.20,00,000 Total Share Capital Rs.70,00,000 < TOP > 49. Answer : (d) Reason : The journal entry on forfeiture of share is Particulars Dr. Cr. (Rs.) (Rs.) Share Capital A/c. (300 × Rs.10) Dr. 3,000 To Share First Call A/c. (300 × Rs.2) 600 To Share Second and Final Call A/c. (300 × Rs.3) 900 To Shares Forfeited A/c. (300 × Rs.5) 1,500 (Being the forfeiture of 300 equity shares of Ramesh on Bank A/c. (300 × Rs.9) Dr. 2,700 < TOP > 26 Bank A/c. (300 × Rs.9) Dr. 2,700 Shares forfeited A/c. (300 × Rs.1) Dr. 300 To Share Capital A/c. (300 × Rs.10) 3,000 (Being the re-issue of 300 shares @ Rs.9 per share and discounted amount of Re.1 per share is to be transferred from share forfeiture a/c) Shares forfeited A/c. Dr. 1,200 To Capital Reserve A/c. 1,200 (Being the profit on re-issue of forfeited shares transferred to Capital Reserve) 50. Answer : (c) Reason : Repayment of short term loan is shown as a decrease in cash (c). Therefore, alternative (c) is the correct answer. It is not a source of working capital. Therefore, alternative (a) is not the correct answer. It is shown as increase in cash (b), is also not a correct answer. Does not affect the working capital (d) is also not a correct answer, since it is affecting the working capital. Is not shown either as a source or a use of funds (e) is also not the correct answer. Therefore, alternative (c) is the correct answer. < TOP > 51. Answer : (c) Reason : Total amount received on forfeited shares =Rs.2500(10-2) =Rs.20,000 Reissue of shares @Rs.7 on fully paid =2500 x Rs.7 =Rs17,500 Shortfall on reissue =2500 x Rs3 =Rs.7,500 Balance in share forfeiture a/c after adjusting for shortfall =Rs.(20,000-7,500) =Rs.12,500. Transfer to capital reserve =Rs.12,500. < TOP > 52. Answer : (e) Reason : Profit on revaluation of machinery = Rs.2,00,000. Share of minority group of S Ltd. = 25% Share of profit on revaluation = 25% of Rs.2,00,000 Rs.2,00,000 Rs.50,000. 100 25 × = < TOP > 53. Answer : (b) Reason : The post-acquisition profits of subsidiary company are the Revenue profits for consolidation of balance sheet of holding company and its subsidiary company. < TOP > 54. Answer: (a) Reason: Half of the stock remained unsold = Rs.20,000/2 = Rs.10,000 = Profit percentage = Rs.5, 000 1 RS.20, 000 4 = = Unrealised profit share = Rs.10,000 1 4 × × 80% = Rs.2,000 < TOP > 55. Answer : (a) Reason: 800 1, 000 = 4 Holding Company 5 ? ? ? ? ? ? Minority Interest = (10,000 × 1/5) = 2,000. < TOP > 56. Answer : (a) Reason : Sinking fund is created out of profit. It is the part of profit and should be listed under the heading “Reserves and Surplus” and not under “unsecured loans”. Loans and advances from subsidiaries, short term loans and advances from banks, loans and advances from others and fixed deposits are unsecured loans. < TOP > 57. Answer: (a) Reason: Profit and Loss Appropriation Account < TOP > 27 Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs. To Net loss 12,71,733 By Balance b/d 1,29,000 To Proposed dividend Equity 4,00,000 By Dividend equalization .reserve 3,91,000 Preference 1,20,000 By Balance C/d. 12,71,733 Total 17,91,733 Total 17,91,733 Amount to be transferred from dividend equalization reserve is Rs.3,91,000 58. Answer : (d) Reason : No dividends an paid on call in advance nor on calls in arrar Dividend = 12% on Rs. 12,00,000 = Rs. 1,44,000 < TOP > 59. Answer : (a) Reason : Outstanding salaries is the amount payable during a particular period which is not yet paid. It is Personal Account representing salaries due to employees. It is a representative personal account < TOP > 60. Answer : (b) Reason : The surplus arising on a professional revaluation of fixed asset is a capital reserve. < TOP > 61. Answer : (d) Reason : A company’s system of maintaining books of accounts must be on the accrual basis and according to the double entry system of accounting. The systems in other alternatives are no systems at all or not recognized under the Act. Thus, alternative (d) is the correct answer. < TOP > 62. Answer : (a) Reason: A shareholder wants to review the revenues and expenses of a company. The financial statement the investor would consult is the Income statement. (a) is the correct answer. < TOP > 63. Answer : (c) Reason : The opening balance of retained earnings i.e. profit and loss appropriation account is Rs.25,000 and the profit earned during the year is Rs.50,000 thus total retained earnings is Rs.75,000 and the closing balance is Rs.55,000. Thus, the amount of dividends paid is Rs.20,000. < TOP > 64. Answer : (a) Reason : Net value added is derived by deducting depreciation from the gross value added and not vice versa. Thus the statement in alternative (a) is false. The value added is not the most relevant concept and the statement forms part of social responsibility reporting (b). It is arrived at by deducting only the cost of bought in materials and services (c). It measures the value of increase in resources (d). The approaches adopted are additive approach and subtractive approach in computing value added (e). Thus, the alternatives (b), (c), (d) and (e) are true. < TOP > 65. Answer : (d) Reason: Depreciation charged to date Cost Rs. Written down Value Rs. Depreciation Rs. Land 2,00,000 2,00,000 - Building 4,00,000 3,50,000 50,000 Plant and machinery 7,00,000 5,25,000 1,75,000 Furniture 62,500 50,000 12,500 13,62,500 11,25,000 2,37,500 < TOP > 66. Answer : (a) Reason: The annual interest cost which is payable half yearly on a twenty-year, 6 %, Rs.10,000 debentures that are issued at Rs.10,200 is Rs.10,000 x 6% =Rs.600. < TOP > 67. Answer : (e) Reason : Dr. Machinery account Cr. Date Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs. 1-04-03 To Opening balance 85,000 1-10-03 By Bank (sale) 50,000 1-07-03 To Bank 90,000 31-3-04 By Depreciation 15,250 1-10-03 To Profit and loss a/c 31-3-04 By Closing balance 2,01,750 1-01-04 To Bank 80,000 < TOP > 28 1-01-04 To Bank 80,000 2,67,000 2,67,000 Depreciation calculation: Particulars Rs. On machinery purchased on 1-7-03 (Rs.90,000 x 10% x 9/12) 6,750 On machinery sold (40,000 x 10% x 6/12) 2,000 On machinery purchased on 1-1-04 (Rs.80,000 x 10% x 3/12 ) 2,000 On balance machinery (Rs,85,000 – Rs.40,000) x 10% 4,500 15,250 68. Answer : (c) Reason : Rights shares are the shares that are offered to the existing equity shareholders (c). These are not issued by a newly formed company (a).They are not the shares issued to the public at large (b). They are issued only to the existing shareholders. It does not indicate the right of redemption of shares issue (d). These are not the shares with cumulative dividend right (e). Therefore, alternative (c) is the correct answer. < TOP > 69. Answer : (c) Reason : According to the ‘purchase of Super-Profit Method’ of valuing goodwill, goodwill is the product of the super profit and the number of years’ purchase and For calculating the amount of goodwill by the super profit method, it is necessary that the fair value of the capital employed should be determined. These two statements are true. Hence, the answer is (c ). < TOP > 70. Answer : (e ) Reason : The three columns on each side of the three columnar cash book represent Real accounts, Personal accounts and Nominal accounts < TOP > 71. Answer : (c) Reason : The claims against the company not acknowledged as debts represent contingent liabilities and should be included in the notes to balance sheet. < TOP > 72. Answer : (d) Reason : The increase in equity or net assets from major or central transactions or activities of a business entity is from net profit. Capital is the investment made by the owner and not the increase from major activities of the business. Gross profit is subject to deduction of many expenses. Net worth is the net assets of an entity. Cash on hand cannot be termed as increase in equity. < TOP > 73. Answer : (a) Reason : Balance sheet can be used to assess the liquidity of a company. The profit and loss account shows the profit or loss of the company but does not help in assessing the liquidity of the company. The profit and loss appropriation account gives the details of appropriations and the retained earnings. The bank reconciliation statement is prepared only to reconcile the differences in bank balance as per cashbook and pass book. The manufacturing account shows the cost of goods produced. Hence the answer is (a). < TOP > 74. Answer : (b) Reason : The frequently used valuation bases in accounting are Historical Cost, Current cost, Realizable value and present value < TOP > 75. Answer : (d) Reason : Cash book is a special journal in which all cash transactions are recorded directly. The cash book resembles a ledger with the debit and credit sides, and the balance represents the cash on hand at the end of the accounting period. Hence it serves the purpose of ledger. Cash account is not opened when a cash, book is maintained. Purchases book, sales book, bills receivables book and journal proper are the books of original entry and they do not serve the purpose of ledger. < TOP > 76. Answer : (d ) Reason : Bank reconciliation statement is a statement showing the causes for differences between the balances of cashbook and pass book < TOP > 77. Answer : (a) Reason : The value of goods given as charity will be debited to charity account and credited to purchase account .The debit balance in charity account will be transferred to P&L a/c. < TOP > 78. Answer : (b) < TOP 29 Reason : Prepaid expenses is shown on the debit side of a Trial Balance. > 79. Answer : (e) Reason : Closing stock is valued at cost price or market price whichever is lower. It is not valued at cost price, replacement cost, market price or realisable value. < TOP > < TOP OF THE DOCUMENT >
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