My Profile
Active Members
TodayLast 7 Days
more...
Awards & Gifts
Online Exams
Fresher Jobs
Our fresher job section is exclusively for fresh graduates! Find jobs for freshers in major Indian
cities including Bangalore, Chennai, Hyderabad, Pune or Kochi
Resources
Find educational articles, blogs, discussion threads and other resources.
Colleges
Find details about any college in India or search for courses.
|
Download Model question papers & previous years question papers
|
Posted By: Kenny Member Level: Gold Posted Date: 22 May 2008
|
2005 ICFAI University M.B.A Economics (MB141) – July 2005 Question paper
Question Paper
Economics (MB141) – July 2005
•?Answer all questions.
•?Marks are indicated against each question.
1. If the total product is maximum it indicates that
(a) The marginal product is negative
(b) The marginal product is greater than the average product
(c) The average product is zero
(d) The average product is greater than the marginal product
(e) The slope of the average product is positive.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
2. ENGC, a crude oil firm has recently entered into offshore oil drilling facilities in Africa. The impact of an
improvement in technology on the supply curve of ENGC is indicated by a
(a) Shift in the supply curve to the right
(b) Shift in the supply curve to the left
(c) Upward movement along the same supply curve
(d) Downward movement along the same supply curve
(e) Shift in demand curve.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
3. The demand for essential goods is usually
(a) Relatively elastic (b) Perfectly inelastic
(c) Unitary elastic (d) Relatively inelastic (e) Perfectly elastic.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
4. If the demand for electric cars remains the same, ceteris paribus, even after an increase in the price of diesel
cars, electric cars and diesel cars are considered to be
(a) Substitute goods (b) Complementary goods
(c) Independent goods (d) Luxury goods
(e) Inferior goods.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
5. If the quantity demanded of a precious metal increased though the price of the precious metals do not change, it
implies
(a) Income of the people has decreased
(b) Income of the people has increased
(c) No change in the income of people
(d) Supply of the precious metal has increased
(e) A decrease in the price of substitutes of the precious metal.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
6. When an increase in all inputs by a firm leads to a proportional increase in output or vice versa, it shows
(a) Decreasing returns to scale
(b) Constant returns to scale
(c) Diminishing marginal rate of technical substitution
(d) Increasing marginal rate of substitution
< Answer >
(e) Diminishing utility.
(1 mark)
7. A food producer finds that the price elasticity of demand for food is infinity. If the manufacturer decides to
increase the price of the food by 10 % the demand for food will
(a) Increase by 10%
(b) Remain the same
(c) Decline to zero
(d) Increase by more than 10%
(e) Decrease by less than 10%.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
8. Demand and supply functions for a product are estimated as follows:
Qd = 10,000 – 4P
Qs = 2,000 + 6P
If the government imposes a sales tax of Rs.100 per unit, the new price will be
(a) Rs.800 (b) Rs.860 (c) Rs.220 (d) Rs.180 (e) Rs.500.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
9. Because of close substitutes, the demand curve faced by a monopolistically competitive firm is
(a) Perfectly elastic (b) Perfectly inelastic (c) Unitary elastic
(d) Relatively elastic (e) Relatively inelastic.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
10.In India, which of the following industries best illustrates monopoly?
(a) Agriculture (b) Automobile industry
(c) Atomic energy (d) Cola drinks (e) Television industry.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
11.Marginal product of labor is the
(a) Cost of employing labor for producing one more unit of output
(b) Change in output from using one more unit of labor
(c) Change in revenue from selling one more unit of output
(d) Change in revenue from using one more unit of labor
(e) Change in demand when one more unit of labor is used.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
12.A profit maximizing firm seeks to maximize the difference between
(a) Marginal revenue and marginal cost
(b) Marginal revenue and average cost
(c) Total revenue and marginal revenue
(d) Total revenue and average cost
(e) Average revenue and average cost.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
13.For a consumer in equilibrium, marginal rate of substitution of X for Y (MRSxy) is 3. If price of the good X (Px)
is Rs.75, price of good Y (Py) is
(a) 0 (b) Rs.25 (c) Rs.75 (d) Rs.150 (e) Rs.225.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
14.The production function of an electrical cable making firm is given as 135L2 - 3L3. If the firm wishes to
maximize output, the amount of labor to be employed by the firm is
(a) 20 units (b) 23 units (c) 24 units (d) 25 units (e) 30 units.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
15.Which of the following represents the marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS)?
(a) Slope of the isocost line
(b) Slope of the indifference curve
(c) Slope of the isoquant
(d) Slope of the budget line
(e) Slope of the average cost curve.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
16.Average productivity of labor for a firm is 25 when labor employed is 50 units. When labor employed is
increased to 52 units, average productivity of labor declines to 24 units. At current input level, the marginal
productivity of labor is
(a) –1 unit (b) –2 units (c) 1 unit (d) 2 units (e) –4 units.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
17.Among the following goods, which has the highest income elasticity of demand?
(a) Tea (b) Ice cream (c) Milk (d) Rice (e) Water.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
18.The production function of Ramco Ltd. is
Q = 200L0.5K0.5
The current wages (w) and cost of capital (r) are Rs.50 and Rs.25, respectively. Market price of the good
produced by the company is Rs.5. If Ramco Ltd. is currently using 100 units of capital (K), which is fixed, the
quantity of labor that the firm should use to maximize its total profit is
(a) 10,000 (b) 500 (c) 5,000 (d) 25,000 (e) 1,000.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
19.The demand function of a product is given as follows:
Qd =145 – P
If the product is sold at a price of Rs.80 the marginal revenue earned from the sale of the product is
(a) Rs.10 (b) Rs.20 (c) Rs.15 (d) Rs.25 (e) Rs.80.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
20.Production function for a firm is TPL = 20L – L2. The number of labor units after which marginal product
becomes negative is
(a) 4 units (b) 6 units (c) 10 units (d) 20 units (e) 8 units.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
21.Production function for a firm is Q = 100L – 0.02L2. If 10 units of labor are used, average productivity of labor
is
(a) 100.0 units (b) 20.0 units (c) 99.8 units (d) 200.0 units (e) 0.20 unit.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
22.A producer produces 10 units of output with an average cost of production of Rs.20. When the output increased < Answer >
by one unit, the average cost of production increased to Rs.21. The marginal cost of producing the 11th unit is
(a) Rs.11 (b) Rs.31 (c) Rs.41 (d) Rs.51 (e) Rs.61.
(2 marks)
23.Long run cost function of a firm is TC = Q3 – 40Q2 + 450Q.
What is the minimum possible average cost?
(a) Rs.20 (b) Rs.60 (c) Rs.10 (d) Rs.50 (e) Rs.30.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
24.
The average cost function for an entrepreneur is estimated as
200
Q +20 +4Q. If the firm produces 15 units of
output, the total variable cost incurred by the firm is
(a) Rs.1,000 (b) Rs.1,200 (c) Rs.1,300 (d) Rs.1,400 (e) Rs.1,500.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
25.The cost function of an automobile firm is given as 300 + 6Q – 0.4Q 2. Fixed cost of the automobile firm is
(a) Rs.100 (b) Rs.200 (c) Rs.300 (d) Rs.50 (e) Rs.75.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
26.Average product of a variable input is
(a) The total product divided by the price of the product
(b) The same as marginal product when marginal product is maximum
(c) The total product divided by the amount of variable input used
(d) The same as total product when marginal product is zero
(e) The amount of additional output that can be produced by using one more unit of the variable input.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
27.The percentage change in quantity demanded to the percentage change in the price of a good represents
(a) Slope of demand curve
(b) Elasticity of demand
(c) Elasticity of supply
(d) Law of demand
(e) Law of supply.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
28.A digital diary manufacturing firm is operating in a perfectly competitive market. In the long run, the firm will
continue in business so long as it covers
(a) Average variable costs (b) Total costs
(c) Marginal costs (d) Implicit costs (e) Sunk costs.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
29.The supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm is represented by
(a) Average variable cost curve
(b) Average cost curve
(c) Average revenue curve
(d) Marginal cost curve below the average revenue curve
(e) Marginal cost curve above the average variable cost curve.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
30.The total cost function of JRG Ltd. operating in a perfectly competitive market is given by
TC = 25,000 + 140Q + 4Q 2. If the price charged by the firm is Rs.300, the profit maximizing output will be
(a) 15 units (b) 20 units (c) 25 units (d) 30 units (e) 35 units.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
31.The total cost function for Lignite Ltd. is given as 200 + 4Q + 2Q2. The firm is a perfectly competitive firm and
is selling the product at Rs.24. If the output produced and sold by the firm is 5 units, the profit (loss) earned by
the firm is
(a) Profit of Rs.100 (b) Loss of Rs.100 (c) Profit of Rs.150
(d) Loss of Rs.150 (e) Profit of Rs.200.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
32.The demand and supply functions of a good are given as follows:
Qd = 19,000 – 300P
Qs = 13,000 – 100P
What is the equilibrium price of the good?
(a) Rs.10 (b) Rs.20 (c) Rs.30 (d) Rs.40 (e) Rs.50.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
33.For a firm, total variable cost at various levels of output are given below:
Quantity (units) Total Variable Cost (Rs.)
1 10
2 30
3 35
4 56
5 72
6 78
For the firm, the average variable cost for producing 6 units of output is
(a) Rs.10 (b) Rs.12 (c) Rs.13 (d) Rs.16 (e) Rs.18.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
34.Long-run equilibrium of a perfectly competitive firm indicates that
(a) Price charged by the firm is greater than average variable cost
(b) Price charged by the firm is greater than marginal revenue
(c) Price charged by the firm is greater than marginal costs
(d) Price charged by the firm is greater than average costs
(e) Price charged by the firm is equal to average cost.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
35.A firm having a kinked demand curve indicates that
I. If the firm reduces the price, competitive firms also reduce the price.
II. If the firm increases the price, competitive firms also increase the price.
III. If the firm reduces the price, competitive firms do not reduce the price.
IV. If the firm increases the price, competitive firms do not increase the price.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above (b) Both (I) and (IV) above
(c) Both (II) and (IV) above (d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) Only (I) above.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
36.In a pure oligopoly, a price war refers to
(a) Continuous price increases by firms to increase revenues and profits
(b) Unexpected price cut by a firm to improve its sales volumes
(c) A decrease in quantity supplied by the competitive firms to raise prices in order to maximize profits
(d) Entry of a new firm in the industry who charges a lower price
(e) Successive and continued price cuts by competitive firms with an aim to increase market share.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
37.If the average total cost and the average variable cost of a firm is given Rs.1,000 and as Rs.300 respectively, then
average fixed cost of the firm is
(a) Rs.100 (b) Rs.400 (c) Rs.500 (d) Rs.600 (e) Rs.700.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
38.A consumer can maximize his total utility if he allocates his money income so that
(a) Marginal utility of each product consumed is equal
(b) Gain in marginal utility from the last rupee spent on each product purchased is the same
(c) Elasticity of demand is the same for all the products purchased
(d) Total utility gained from each product consumed is the same
(e) Marginal utility of each product consumed is zero.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
39.Which of the following statements is true, if demand for mobile phones increases by 12% when income
increases by 5%?
(a) Income elasticity of demand for mobile phones is 2.4 and mobile phones are inferior goods
(b) Income elasticity of demand for mobile phones is 0.42 and mobile phones are normal goods
(c) Income elasticity of demand for mobile phones is 2.4 and mobile phones are necessary goods
(d) Income elasticity of demand for mobile phones is 0.42 and mobile phones are inferior goods
(e) Income elasticity of demand for mobile phones is 2.4 and mobile phones are luxury goods.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
40.The cost and profit functions of a firm are given as
TC = 200 + 10Q
Profit = –10Q2 + 200Q – 200
If the firm aims at maximizing total revenue, the output would be
(a) 10.0 units (b) 9.5 units (c) 10.5 units (d) 6.3 units (e) 19.0 units.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
41. Which of the following is true if prices of all the goods and services in an economy increase in a year?
(a) Real GDP will increase
(b) Nominal GDP will increase
(c) Real GDP will increase more than nominal GDP
(d) Real GDP will increase in proportion to the increase in prices
(e) GDP deflator decreases.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
The circular flow of income in a two sector model implies
(a) Payments for factors of production from firms to households and payments for final products from households
to firms
(b) Payment for final products among firms
(c) Payments for final products from households to government sector
< Answer >
(d) Payment for final products from government sector to firms
(e) Payment for final products from government sector to households.
(1 mark)
43. Which of the following is considered as an investment?
(a) Arun deposits Rs.10,000 with a nationalized bank in a term deposit for a period of 5 years
(b) Barucha invests Rs.5,000 in equity shares of a company
(c) Charlie and Co. accumulates unsold inventory worth Rs.1,000
(d) Delta Corp. buys ten used vehicles to strengthen its transportation fleet
(e) Transferring Rs.500 from the account of Mr. X to account of Mr. Y.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
44. The following is the information from the national income accounts of an economy:
Particulars Million Units of
Currency (MUC)
NNP at factor cost 6,000
Corporate taxes 900
Undistributed corporate profits 1,500
Transfer payments 500
Personal income in the country is
(a) 4,000 MUC (b) 4,100 MUC (c) 4,500 MUC (d) 4,200 MUC (e) 4,600 MUC.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
45. The following information is extracted from the National Income Accounts of an economy.
Particulars MUC
Factor income earned within the domestic territory 65,000
Gross domestic fixed capital formation 6,000
Net domestic fixed capital formation 4,000
GNP at market prices 85,000
Indirect taxes 3,000
Subsidies 1,000
The net factor income from abroad for the economy would be
(a) 15,000 MUC (b) 13,000 MUC (c) 16,000 MUC (d) 17,000 MUC (e) 11,000 MUC.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
46. The following information is extracted from the National Income Accounts of an economy for the year 2005:
Particulars MUC
GNP at market prices 700
Factor income received by domestic residents from foreigners 20
Net indirect taxes 60
Subsidies 25
Depreciation 10
NNP at factor cost for the year 2005 is
(a) 560 MUC (b) 620 MUC (c) 655 MUC (d) 665 MUC (e) 810 MUC.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
47. Consider the following information for a country called ‘Dream Land’.
Autonomous consumption : 100 MUC
Marginal propensity to consume : 0.75
Planned investment : 50 MUC
Government purchases : 150 MUC
< Answer >
Net Exports : 20 MUC
The equilibrium level of output for ‘Dream Land’ is
(a) 80 MUC (b) 183 MUC (c) 427 MUC (d) 880 MUC (e) 1,280 MUC.
(2 marks)
48. If the marginal propensity to consume is zero, a decrease in investment would lead to
(a) A decrease in the equilibrium level of income by the same amount
(b) No change in the equilibrium level of income
(c) An unending downward spiral in equilibrium level of income
(d) An unending upward spiral in the equilibrium level of income
(e) An increase in the equilibrium level of income by the same amount.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
49. The business cycle is defined as
(a) The changes in the money supply in a year
(b) The long run path after removing short run variations
(c) The variation in the economic activity with a regular pattern
(d) The change in the fiscal deficit of a country
(e) The change in inflation in a year for a country.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
50. Supply of goods creates its own demand. This is according to the
(a) Consumption function (b) Production possibility frontier
(c) Aggregate demand function (d) Say’s law
(e) Keynesian theory.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
51. If the average propensity to consume (APC) in an economy is 1.05, average propensity to save (APS) in the
economy would be
(a) – 0.05 (b) – 0.95 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.05 (e) 0.05.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
52. The value of existing houses bought in a particular period is
(a) Included in GNP but not in GDP
(b) Included in GDP but not in GNP
(c) Included in both GDP and GNP
(d) Sometimes included in GNP but never in GDP
(e) Neither included in GDP nor GNP.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
53. Monetary liabilities of the central bank of a country is 1,300 MUC. If the government money in the economy is 200
MUC, the high powered money in the economy is
(a) 1,400 MUC (b) 1,500 MUC (c) 1,650 MUC (d) 1,600 MUC (e) 1,250 MUC.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
54. Consider the following information:
Disposable income (Rs.) Consumption (Rs.)
2,000 2,700
4,000 4,100
6,000 5,500
8,000 6,900
< Answer >
10,000 8,300
What is the marginal propensity to consume?
(a) 0.15 (b) 0.30 (c) 0.70 (d) 0.40 (e) 0.45.
(1 mark)
55. The savings function for a hypothetical economy is give by S = –300 + 0.2Y. If the savings in the economy
amounts to 800 MUC, the equilibrium output in the economy is
(a) 2,000 MUC (b) 5,000 MUC (c) 5,500 MUC (d) 6,500 MUC (e) 1,200 MUC.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
56. In an economy, if marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.50, multiplier for the economy is
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.80 (c) 2.00 (d) 3.50 (e) 5.50.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
57. According to the classical economists, the long run aggregate supply curve is
(a) Vertical (b) Horizontal
(c) First horizontal and then vertical (d) First vertical and then horizontal
(e) Positively sloped.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
58. In a world where there is perfect flexibility in wages and prices, ceteris paribus, you can expect that
(a) The economy will always operate at full employment level
(b) There will be overproduction in the economy
(c) There will be underproduction in the economy
(d) The government interference is needed to enforce equilibrium
(e) The aggregate supply curve will be horizontal.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
59. The slope of the consumption function represents
(a) Average propensity to save
(b) Marginal propensity to consume
(c) Marginal propensity to save
(d) Average propensity to consume
(e) Marginal propensity to import.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
60. Large government borrowings to finance its deficit will
(a) Increase the supply of loanable funds
(b) Exert downward pressure on interest rates
(c) Have no impact on interest rates
(d) Put upward pressure on interest rates
(e) Makes it easier for the commercial sector to borrow money.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
61. The balance of payments statement is divided into
(a) Current account and the trade account
(b) Trade account and the capital account
(c) Current account and the capital account
(d) Current account and the reserve account
(e) Reserve account and the savings account.
< Answer >
(1 mark)
62. Which of the following is true if the RBI decreases cash reserve ratio (CRR)?
(a) Monetary liabilities of the RBI decreases
(b) Net foreign exchange assets of the central bank increases
(c) The value of money multiplier increases
(d) Aggregate demand in the economy decreases
(e) Price level in the economy falls.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
63. Credit creation by commercial banks refer to
(a) Printing currency notes
(b) Paying interest to their depositors
(c) Making loans that result in additional deposits
(d) Offering financial services, such as money market accounts
(e) Accepting deposits from the public.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
64. Which of the following variables is a flow variable?
(a) Capital stock (b) Unemployment level
(c) Gross fixed investment (d) Consumer Price Index (e) Public debt.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
65. In a deflationary period, the appropriate policy for the RBI would be to
(a) Buy government securities in the open market
(b) Discourage commercial banks to increase their loans
(c) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) Increase bank rate
(e) Reduce the credit to government.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
66. The total cost function of a firm is given as 1,050 + 10Q2 + 8Q. The marginal cost of the firm when the quantity
produced is 15 units will be
(a) Rs.300 (b) Rs.385 (c) Rs.308 (d) Rs.310 (e) Rs.320.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
67. The demand schedule for a product is given as follows:
Price (Rs) Quantity Demanded (units)
3 20
4 16
5 12
6 8
7 4
The arc price elasticity of demand for an increase in the price from Rs.5 to Rs.6 is
(a) 2.20 (b) 2.58 (c) 3.58 (d) 1.36 (e) 0.45.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
68. If the economy is in a recession, the proponents of Keynesian economics suggest
I A decrease in interest rate to encourage additional investment.
II An increase in government spending.
III A decrease in taxes.
< Answer >
IV. An increase in import duty.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
(1 mark)
69. According to the Keynesian theory, restrictive fiscal policy will cause
(a) Aggregate demand to increase
(b) Aggregate supply to increase
(c) Aggregate demand to decrease
(d) Aggregate supply to decrease
(e) Aggregate demand to remain constant.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
70. According to monetarism, other things remaining the same, if the velocity of money increases, then
(a) The stock of money would increase
(b) The nominal GDP would decrease
(c) Price level would rise
(d) The real GDP would increase
(e) Real GDP remains constant.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
71. If banks decide to keep a higher fraction of their deposits as reserves,
(a) The money supply will decrease
(b) The money supply will increase
(c) The money supply will remain unchanged
(d) Interest rate in the economy will decrease
(e) Interest rates remain constant.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
72. In an economy, the high-powered money and money supply are 4,300 MUC and 17,200 MUC respectively. If the
reserve ratio is 10%, currency deposit ratio for the economy is
(a) 0.17 (b) 0.20 (c) 0.24 (d) 0.27 (e) 0.29.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
73. As on June 30, 2005, monetary liabilities of the central bank are 1,200 MUC and government money is 50 MUC. If
the currency deposit ratio is 0.20 and the central bank specifies a reserve ratio of 5%, money supply in the economy
will be
(a) 5,000 MUC (b) 5,500 MUC (c) 6,000 MUC (d) 6,550 MUC (e) 6,600 MUC.
(2 marks)
< Answer >
74. The following information is available for an economy:
Particulars MUC
Consumption 556
Investment 165
Government expenditure 79
Money supply 160
The velocity of circulation of money in the economy is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c ) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5.
< Answer >
(2 marks)
75. Which of the following items represents a credit entry in India’s Balance of Payments statement?
(a) Purchase of gold by Gold Guild Ltd. from a Swiss Bank
(b) Repatriation of dividends by an MNC
(c) Investment by an Indian Mutual Fund in the UK
(d) Foreign exchange earned by Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) of India
(e) Remittance to USA by an American executive based at New Delhi.
(1 mark)
< Answer >
76. Balance of payments of a country for the year 2004 is given below:
Particulars MUC
Merchandise imports 20,000
Merchandise exports 18,000
Software exports 16,000
Software imports 12,000
Earnings on loans and investments abroad 400
Earnings on loans and investments in the country by foreigners 1,000
Private remittances to abroad 200
Private remittances from abroad 150
Government loans to abroad 30
Government loans from abroad 20
Direct investments abroad 10
Foreign direct investment in the country 150
Short-term loans and investments abroad 200
Foreign short-term loans and investments in the country 40
The balance of trade (BoT) for the year 2004 is
(a) 2,000 MUC (deficit) (b) 2,000 MUC (surplus)
(c) 1,000 MUC (surplus) (d) 1,350 MUC (surplus)
(e) 1,950 MUC (surplus).
(2 marks)
< Answer >
Return to question paper search
|
|
|
Submit Previous Years University Question Papers and make money from adsense revenue sharing program
Are you preparing for a university examination? Download model question papers
and practise before you write the exam.
|
Watch TV Channels
|