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Posted By: sobha wilson Member Level: Diamond Posted Date: 15 Jun 2008
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2006 AIEEE 2006 Question paper
Career Forum
An ISO 9001-2000 company
AIEEE 2006
PART – A MATHEMATICS
1. Let W denote the words in the English dictionary. Define the relation R by:
R = (x, y) Î W x W |the words x and y have at least one letter in common}.
Then R is
(1) reflexive, symmetric and transitive (2) reflexive, not symmetric and transitive.
(3) not reflexive, symmetric and transitive (4) reflexive, symmetric and not transitive
2. The value of is
(1) -1 (2) -i (3) i (4) 1
3. If A and B are square matrices of size n x n such that A2 – B2 = (A –B) (A+B), then which of the following will be always true ?
(1) Either of A or B is a zero matrix (2) Either of A or B is an identity matrix
(3) A = B (4) AB = BA
4. All the values of m for which both roots of the equation x2 – 2mx + m2 – 1 = 0 are greater than -2 but less than 4, lie in the interval
(1) – 1 < m < 3 (2) 1 < m < 4 (3) -2 < m < 0 (4) m > 3
5. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15°, respectively then the value of 2 + q – p is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
6. The number of values of x in the interval [0, 3p] satisfying the equation
2 sin2x + 5 sin x – 3 = 0 is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
7. The value of the integral. dx is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) (4)
8. If ( = , Where and are any three vectors such that ¹ 0,
. ¹ 0 then and are
(1) Perpendicular (2) parallel
(3) inclined at an angle of p/3 between them (4) inclined at an angle of p/6 between them
9. Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102,…, 200, and another population B has 100 observations 151, 152,…., 250. If VA and VB represent the variances of the two populations, respectively, then is
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
10. ABC is a triangle, right angled at A. The resultant of the forces acting along with magnitudes and respectively is the force along , where D is the foot of the perpendicular from A onto BC. The magnitude of the resultant is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
11. If the expression in powers of x of the function is a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3+ …. then an is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12. At an election, a voter may vote for any number of candidates, not greater than the number to be elected. There are 10 candidate and 4 are to be elected. If a voter votes for at least one candidate, then the number of ways in which he can vote is
(1) 385 (2) 1110 (3) 5040 (4) 6210
13. For natural numbers m, n if
(1 –y)m (1 +y)n = 1 +a1y + a2y2 + …, and a1 = a2 = 10, then (m, n) is
(1) (45, 35) (2) (35, 45) (3) (20, 45) (4) (35, 20)
14. Let a1, a2, a3,…… be terms of an A. P if , p ¹ q then equals
(1) (2) (3) (4)
15. Let A = and B = , a , b Î IN. Then
(1) there exists exactly one B such that AB = BA
(2) there exist infinitely many B’s such that AB = BA
(3) there cannot exist any B such that AB =BA
(4) there exist more than one but finite number of B’s such that AB = BA
16. The set of points where f (x) = is differentiable is
(1) (-¥, ¥) (2) (0, ¥) (3) (-¥, 0) È ( 0 ¥) (4) (-¥, -1) È ( -1, ¥)
17. The function f (x) = has a local minimum at
(1) x = 0 (2) x = 1 (3) x = 2 (4) x = -2
18. If x is real, the maximum value of
is
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4) 41
19. Angle between the tangents to the curve y = x2 – 5x + 6 at the points (2, 0) and (3, 0) is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
20. A triangular park is enclosed on two sides by a fence and on the third side by a straight river bank. The two sides having fence are of same length x. The maximum area enclosed by the park is
(1) x2 (2) px2 (3) x2 (4)
21. dx is equal to
(1) (2) p (3) p (4) p
22. is equal to
(1) p/2 (2) (p/4) – 1 (3) p4/32 (4) (p4/32) + (p/2)
23. A straight line through the point A (3, 4) is such that its intercept between the axes is bisected at A. Its equation is
(1) 4x + 3y = 24 (2) 3x + 4y = 25 (3) x +y = 7 (4) 3x – 4y +7 = 0
24. The locus of the vertices of the family of parabolas y = is
(1) xy = (2) xy = (3) xy = (4) xy =
25. In an ellipse, the distance between its foci is 6 and minor axis is 8. Then its eccentricity is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
26. The two lines x = ay + b, z = cy +d; and x = a’y +b’, z = c’y + d’ are perpendicular to each other if
(1) (2) (3) aa’ + cc’ = -1 (4) aa’ + cc’ = 1
27. The values of a, for which the points A, B, C with position vectors ,
and respectively are the vertices of a right angled triangle with C = are
(1) -2 and 1 (2) 2 and -1 (3) 2 and 1 (4) -2 and -1
28. At a telephone enquiry system the number of phone calls regarding relevant enquiry follow Poisson distribution with an average of 5 phone calls during 10-minute time intervals. The probability that there is at the most one phone call during a 10-minute time period is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
29. A particle has two velocities of equal magnitude inclined to each other at an angle q. If one of them is halved, the angle between the other and the original resultant velocity is bisected by the new resultant. Then q is
(1) 90° (2) 120° (3) 45° (4) 60°
30. A body falling from rest under gravity passes a certain point P. It was at a distance of 400m from P, 4s prior to passing through P. If g = 10 m/s2, then the height above the point P from where the body began to fall is
(1) 720 m (2) 900 m (3) 320 m (4) 680 m
31. If z2 + z + 1 = 0, where z is a complex number , then the value of
is
(1) 18 (2) 54 (3) 6 (4) 15
32. If a1, a2, …., an are in H.P. , then the expression a1a2+a2a3+…..+an-1an is equal to
(1) n (a1- an) (2) (n – 1) (a1 – an) (3) na1an (4) (n – 1) a1an
33. If 0 < x < p, and cos x + sin x = , then tan x is
(1) (1 - )/4 (2) (4 - )/3 (3) – (4 + )/3 (4) (1 + )/4
34. If xm. yn = (x +y)m+n, then is
(1) (2) (3) xy (4)
35. The value of a > 1, where [x] is denotes the greatest integer not exceeding x is
(1) a f (a) – { f(1) +f (2) + ….. +f([a])} (2) [a] f(a) – { f(1) + f (2) + ….. + f([a])}
(3) [a] f([a]) – {f (1) + f (2) + …. + f(a)} (4) a f ([a]) – {f(1) + f(2) + …. + f(a)}
36. The differential equation whose solution is Ax2 + By2 = 1, where A and B are arbitrary constants is of
(1) Second order and second degree (2) first order and second degree
(3) first order and first degree (4) second order and first degree
37. If the lines 3x – 4y – 7 = 0 and 2x – 3y – 5 = 0 are two diameters of a circle area 49p square units, the equation of the circle is
(1) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y – 47 = 0 (2) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y – 62 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 - 2x + 2y – 62 = 0 (4) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y – 47 = 0
38. If (a, a2) falls inside the angle made by the lines y = , x > 0 and y = 3x, x > 0 then a belongs to
(1) (2) (3, ¥) (3) (4)
39. Let C be the circle with centre (0, 0) and radius 3 units. The equation of the locus of the mid points of the chords of the circle C that subtend an angle of at its centre is
(1) x2 + y2 = (2) x2 + y2 = 1 (3) x2 + y2 = (4) x2 + y2 =
40. The image of the point (-1, 3, 4) in the plane x – 2y = 0 is
(1) (2) (15, 11, 4) (3) (4) (8, 4, 6)
PART – B PHYSICS
41. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive x-direction with a velocity ‘v’ that varies as v = aÖx. The displacement of the particle varies with time as
(1) t3 (2) t2 (3) t (4) t1/2
42. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required to displace it until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is
(1) Mg (Ö2 - 1) (2) Mg (Ö2 + 1) (3) Mg Ö2 (4) Mg/Ö2
43. A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses of 4 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of the 12 kg mass is 4 ms-1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is
(1) 96 J (2) 144 J (3) 288 J (4) 192 J
44. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
(1) 0.5 J (2) -0.5 J (3) -1.25 J (4) 1.25 J
45. A whistle producing sound waves of frequencies 9500 Hz and above is approaching a stationary person with speed v ms-1. The velocity of sound in air is 300 ms-1. If the person can hear frequencies upto a maximum of 10,000 Hz, the maximum value of v upto which he can hear the whistle is
(1) 30 ms-1 (2) 15Ö2 ms-1 (3) 15 /Ö 2 ms-1 (4) 15 ms-1
46. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will experience
(1) a torque only
(2) a translational force only in the direction of the field
(3) a translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field
(4) a torque as well as a translational force
47. A material ‘B’ has twice the specific resistance of ‘A’. A circular wire made of ‘B’ has twice the diameter of a wire made of ‘A’. Then for the two wires to have the same resistance, the ratio lA /lB of their respective lengths must be
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/4
48. The Kirchhoff’s first law (åi = 0) and second law (åiR = åE), where the symbols have their usual meanings, are respectively based on
(1) conservation of charge, conservation of energy
(2) conservation of charge, conservation of momentum
(3) conservation of energy, conservation of charge
(4) conservation of momentum, conservation of charge
49. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present. These two fields are parallel to each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path of the particle will be a
(1) circle (2) helix (3) straight line (4) ellipse
50. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will
(1) attract all three of them
(2) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
(3) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
(4) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly
51. Which of the following units denotes the dimensions ML2 /Q2, where Q denotes the electric charge?
(1) Weber (Wb) (2) Wb/m2 (3) Henry (H) (4) H/m2
52. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching process is completed in 0.1 s, the force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is equal to
(1) 300 N (2) 150 N (3) 3 N (4) 30 N
53. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards by applying a force by hand. If the hand moves 0.2 m which applying the force and the ball goes upto 2 m height further, find the magnitude of the force. Consider g = 10 m/s2
(1) 22 N (2) 4 N (3) 16 N (4) 20 N
54. Consider a two particle system with particles having masses m1 and m2. If the first particle is pushed towards the centre of mass through a distance d, by what distance should the second particle be moved, so as to keep the centre of mass at the same position?
(1) d (2) d (3) d (4) d
55. Starting from the origin, a body oscillates simple harmonically with a period of 2 s. After what time will its kinetic energy be 75% of the total energy?
(1) 1/12 s (2) 1/6 s (3) ¼ s (4) 1/3 s
56. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude 7 mm, is
4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is
(1) 100 s (2) 0.01 s (3) 10 s (4) 0.1 s
57. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two. Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is
(1) 10.5 Hz (2) 105 Hz (3) 1.05 Hz (4) 1050 Hz
58. Assuming the sun to be a spherical body of radius R at a temperature of T K, evaluate the total radiant power, incident on Earth, at a distance r from the Sun.
(1) R2 s T4 /r2 (2) 4p r R2 s T4 /r2 (3) p r R2 s T4 /r2 (4) r R2 s T4 / 4p r2
Where r0 is the radius of the Earth and s is Stefan’s constant.
59. The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angle of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. Then
(1) D1 > D2
(2) D1 < D2
(3) D1 = D2
(4) D1 can be less than or greater than depending upon the angle of prism
60. In a Wheatstone’s bridge, there resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the fourth arm is formed by two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The condition for bridge to be balanced will be
(1) (2) (3) (4)
61. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be
(1) 0.17 A
(2) 0.33 A
(3) 0.5 A
(4) 0.67 A
62. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 volts and R = 1 k. with C = 2µF. The resonant frequency ? is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is
(1) 4 x 10-3 V (2) 2.5 x 10-2 V (3) 40 V (4) 250 V
63 Two insulating plates are both uniformly charged in such a way that the potential difference between them is V2 - V1 = 20 V. (i.e. plate 2 is at a higher potential). The plates are separated by d = 0.1 m and can be treated as infinitely large. An electron is released from rest on the inner surface of plate 1. What is its speed when it hits plate 2 ? (e = 1.6 x 10-19 C, me = 9.11 x 10-31 kg)
(1) 32 x 10-19 m/s (2) 2.65 x 106 m/s (3) 7.02 x 1012 m/s (4) 1.87 x 106 m/s
64. The resistance of a bulb filament is 100W at a temperature of 100°C. If its temperature coefficient of resistance be 0.005 per °C, its resistance will become 200W at a temperature of
(1) 200°C (2) 300°C (3) 400°C (4) 500°C
65. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency ? in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of e.m.f. generated in the coil is
(1) N.A.B.? (2) N.A.B.R.? (3) N.A.B (4) N.A.B.R
66. The flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by f = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is
(1) 190V (2) – 190V (3) – 10V (4) 10 V
67. A thermocouple is made from two metals, Antimony and Bismuth. If one junction of the couple is kept hot and the other is kept cold then, an electric current will
(1) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at the cold junction
(2) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at the hot junction
(3) flow from Bismuth to Antimony at the cold junction
(4) not flow through the thermocouple
68. The time by a photoelectron to come out after the photon strikes is approximately
(1) 10-1 s (2) 10-4 s (3) 10-10 s (4) 10-16 s
69. An alpha nucleus of energy ½ mv2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closet approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
(1) 1/Ze (2) v2 (3) 1/m (4) 1/v4
70. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV, and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface 5 V. The incident radiation lies in
(1) X-ray region (2) ultra-violet region (3) infra-red region (4) visible region
71. The energy spectrum of ß-particles [number N(E) as a function of ß-energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
72. When 3Li7 nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are 4Be8, the emitted particles will be
(1) neutrons (2) alpha particles (3) beta particles (4) gamma photons
73. A solid which is not transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with temperature is formed by
(1) Metallic binding (2) Ionic binding
(3) Covalent binding (4) Van der Waals binding
74. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons that of holes in a semiconductor is 75 and the ratio of currents is 7/4, then what is the ratio of their drift velocities?
(1) 4/7 (2) 5/8 (3) 4/5 (4) 5/4
75. In a common base mode of a transistor, collector current is 5.488 mA for an emitter current of 5.60 mA. The value of the base current amplification factor (ß) will be
(1) 48 (2) 49 (3) 50 (4) 51
76. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free move along the x-axis is given by V (x) = J. The total mechanical energy of the particle 2 J, then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is
(1) 2 (2) 3 / Ö2 (3) Ö2 (4) 1/ Ö2
77. A force of – F acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system.The torque about the point (1, -1) is
(1) – F ( ) (2) F ( ) (3) – F ( ) (4) F ( )
78. A thin circular ring of mass m and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity ?. Two objects each of mass M are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates with an angular velocity ?. =
(1) (2) (3) (4)
79. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid.
(1) 0.2 m/s (2) 0.4 m/s (3) 0.133 m/s (4) 0.1 m/s
80. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress one kilo mole of gas adiabatically and in this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7° C. The gas is (R = 8.3 J mol-1 K-1)
(1) monoatomic (2) diatomic
(3) triatomic (4) a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
81. The r.m.s value of the electric field of the light coming from the Sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy density of the electromagnetic wave is
(1) 3.3 x 10-3 J/m3 (2) 4.58 x 10-6 J/m3 (3) 6.37 x 10-9 J/m3 (4) 81.35 x 10-12 J/m3
82. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of angular frequency ?. The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave contact with the platform for the first time
(1) at the highest position of the platform
(2) at the mean position of the platform
(3) for an amplitude of g/ ?2
(4) for an amplitude of g2/ ?2
83. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt – 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110 volt will be
(1) 50 watt (2) 75 watt (3) 40 watt (4) 25 watt
84. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength ? of the light falling on the cathode is gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
85. The ‘rad’ is the correct unit used to report the measurement of
(1) the rate of decay of radioactive source
(2) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produce ions in a target
(3) the energy delivered by radiation to a target.
(4) the biological effect of radiation
86. If the binding energy per nucleon in Li and He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively, then in the reaction p + Li ® 2 He, energy of proton must be
(1) 39.2 MeV (2) 28.24 MeV (3) 17.28 MeV (4) 1.46 MeV
87. If the lattice constant of this semiconductor is decreased, then which of the following is correct?
(1) All Ec, Eg, Ev decrease
(2) All Ec, Eg, Ev increase
(3) Ec and Ev increase but Eg decrease
(4) Ec and Ev, decrease Eg increases
88. In the following, which one of the diodes is reverse biased?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
89. The circuit has two oppositely connect ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current following in the circuit?
(1) 1.33 A
(2) 1.71 A
(3) 2.00 A
(4) 2.31 A
90. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current i. The magnetic field at its centre is 6.28 . 10.2 Weber/m2. Another long solenoid has 100 turns per cm and it carries a current i/3. The value of the magnetic field at its centre is
(1) 1.05 x 10-4 Weber/m2 (2) 1.05 x 10-2 Weber/m2
(3) 1.05 x 10-5 Weber/m2 (4) 1.05 x 10-3 Weber/m2
91. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at the corners of a square ABCD of side l. The moment of inertia through A and parallel to BD is
(1) ml2 (2) 2 ml2 (3) Ö 3ml2 (4) 3 ml2
92. A wire elongates by l mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm)
(1) l/2 (2) l (3) 2 l (4) zero
93. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole of nitrogen at temperature T0, while Box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3) T0. The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat flows between them until the gases reach a common final temperature. (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final temperature of the gases, Tf, in terms of T0 is
(1) Tf = T0 (2) Tf = T0 (3) Tf = T0 (4) Tf = T0
94. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and 2 mm are separated by a distance of 5 cm and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in equilibrium condition, the ratio of the magnitude of the electric fields at the surface of spheres A and B is
(1) 1: 4 (2) 4: 1 (3) 1: 2 4) 2: 1
95. An inductor (L = 100 mH), a resistor (R = 100W) and a battery (E = 100 V) are initially connected in series as shown in the figure. After a long time the battery is disconnected after short circuiting the points A and B. The current in the circuit 1 ms, after the circuit is
(1) 1 A (2) 1/e A
(3) e A (4) 0.1 A
PART – C CHEMISTRY
96. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?
(1) 1.25 × 10–2 (2) 2.5 × 10–2 (3) 0.02 (4) 3.125 × 10–2
97. Total volume of atoms present in a face-centre cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius)
(1) 12/3 pr3 (2) 16/3pr3 (3) 20/3 pr3 (4) 24/3 pr3
98. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is
(1) 10 h/p (2) 2.5 h/p (3) 25 h/p (4) 1.0 h/p
99. A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction will
(1) increase by a factor of 4 (2) double
(3) remain unchanged (4) triple
100. Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electrons?
(1) N2+ (2) O2 (3) O22- (4) B2
101. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2 is
(1) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (III) chloride (2) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (II) chloride
(3) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride (4) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
102. Which of the following chemical reactions depicts the oxidizing behaviour of H2SO4?
(1) NaCl + H2SO4 ® NaHSO4 + HCl (2) 2PCl5 + H2SO4 ® 2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2Cl2 (3) 2HI + H2SO4 ® I2 + SO2 +2H2O (4) Ca(OH)2 + H2SO4 ® CaSO4 2H2O
103. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is ClBr
(1) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene (2) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
(3) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene (4) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
104. HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
(1) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3 (2) H3C – CHBr – OCH3
(3) CH3CHO and CH3Br (4) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH
105. The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to compounds A – D is
(A) HCHO (B) CH3COCH3 (C) PhCOCH3 (D) PhCOPh
(1) D < C < B < A (2) C < D < B < A (3) A < B < C < D (4) D < B < C < A
106. In Langmuir’s model of adsorption of a gas on a solid surface
(1) the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is proportional to the pressure of the gas
(2) the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is independent of the pressure of the gas
(3) the rate of dissociation of adsorbed molecules from the surface does not depend on the surface covered
(4) the adsorption at a single site on the surface may involve multiple molecules at the same time
107. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly and irreversibly in an isolated system. If Ti is the initial temperature and Tf is the final temperature, which of the following statements is correct?
(1) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrev
(2) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible processes
(3) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev
(4) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti for irreversible process
108. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) moving with a velocity
300 ms –1, accurate upto 0.001%, will be (h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 1.92 × 10–2 m (2) 3.84 × 10–2 m (3) 19.2 × 10–2 m (4) 5.76 × 10–2 m
109. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction, is present in
(1) KCl and water (2) benzene and carbon tetrachloride
(3) benzene and ethanol (4) acetonitrile and acetone
110. The standard enthalpy of formation of (H). At 298 K for methane, CH4(g), is –74.8 kJ mol–1. The additional information required to determine the average energy for C – H bond formation would be
(1) the first four ionization energies of carbon and electron gain enthalpy of hydrogen
(2) the dissociation energy of hydrogen molecule, H2
(3) the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon
(4) latent heat of vaporization of methane
111. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows, in a closed reaction vessel,
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is P and degree of dissociation of PCl5 is x, the partial pressure of PCl3 will be
(1) P (2) P (3) P (4) P
112. The molar conductivities NaOAc and HCl at infinite dilution in water at 25oC are 91.0 and 426.2 S cm2/mol respectively. To calculate , the additional value required is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
113. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as: k = Ae-E /RT
In this equation, E represents
(1) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T
(2) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the reaction
(3) the energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
(4) the energy below which colliding molecules will not react
114. A metal, M forms chlorides in its +2 and +4 oxidation states. Which of the following statements about these chlorides is correct?
(1) MCl2 is more ionic than MCl4
(2) MCl2 is more easily hydrolysed than MCl4
(3) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4
(4) MCl2 is more soluble in anhydrous ethanol than MCl4
115. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal?
(1) XeF4 (2) 4 BF. (3) SF4 (4) SiF4
116. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) HClO4 is a weaker acid than HClO3
(2) HNO3 is a stronger acid than HNO2
(3) H3PO3 is a stronger acid than H2SO3
(4) In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl
117. Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(1) N3–, O2–, F–, S2– (2) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
(3) K+ , Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+ (4) Ba2+, Sr2+, K+, S2–
118. Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative monodentate ligand X– to form a paramagnetic complex [NiX4]2-. The number of unpaired electron(s) in the nickel and geometry of this complex ion are, respectively
(1) one, square planar (2) two, square planar
(3) one, tetrahedral (4) two, tetrahedral
119. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(1) B < P < S < F (2) B < S < P < F (3) F < S < P < B (4) P < S < B < F
120. What products are expected from the disproportionation reaction of hypochlorous acid?
(1) HCl and Cl2O (2) HCl and HClO3 (3) HClO3 and Cl2O (4) HClO2 and HClO4
121. In Fe (CO)5, the Fe – C bond possesses
(1) ionic character (2) s-character only
(3) p-character only (4) both s and p characters
122. In the transformation of U to U, if one emission is an a-particle, what should be the other emission(s)?
(1) One ß– and one ? (2) One ß+ and one ß–
(3) Two ß– (4) Two ß– and one ß+
123. The term anomers of glucose refers to
(1) enantiomers of glucose
(2) isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)
(3) isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four (C-1 and C-4)
(4) a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose
124. Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
(1) a mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br (2) a mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br
(3) a mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br (4) a mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
125. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
(1) cytosine and thymine (2) cytosine and uracil
(3) cytosine and adenine (4) cytosine and guanine
126. The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is
(1) < < <
(2) < < <
(3) < < <
(4) < < <
127. Fluorobenzene (C6H5F) can be synthesized in the laboratory
(1) by direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas
(2) by reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution
(3) by heating phenol with HF and KF
(4) from aniline by diazotisation followed by heating the diazonium salt with HBF4
128. CH3 Br+ Nu- ® CH3 - Nu + Br-. The decreasing order of the rate of the above reaction with nucleophiles (Nu–) A to D is [Nu– = (A) PhO–, (B) AcO–, (C) HO–, (D) CH3O–]
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > D > C > A (3) D > C > A > B (4) D > C > B > A
129. Among the following the one that gives positive iodoform test upon reaction with I2 and NaOH is
(1) (CH3)2CHCH2OH (2) PhCHOHCH3
(3) CH3CH2CH (OH)CH2CH3 (4) C6H5CH2CH2OH
130. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the compounds
(a) CH3CO2H (b) MeOCH2CO2H (c) CF3CO2H (d) (Me)2CHCO2H is
(1) d < a < b < c (2) a < d < c < b (3) b < d < a < c (4) d < a < c < b
131. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution is
(1) 2.28 mol kg–1 (2) 0.44 mol kg–1 (3) 1.14 mol kg–1 (4) 3.28 mol kg–1
132. 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g of water. The vapour pressure of water for this aqueous solution at 100oC is
(1) 76.00 Torr (2) 752.40 Torr (3) 759.00 Torr (4) 7.60 Torr
133. The enthalpy changes for the following processes are listed below:
Cl2(g) = 2Cl(g), 242.3 kJ mol–1 I2(g) = 2I(g), 151.0 kJ mol–1
ICl(g) = I(g) + Cl(g), 211.3 kJ mol–1 I2(s) = I2(g), 62.76 kJ mol–1
Given that the standard states for iodine and chlorine are I2(s) and Cl2(g), the standard enthalpy of formation for ICl(g) is
(1) +16.8 kJ mol–1 (2) +244.8 kJ mol–1 (3) –14.6 kJ mol–1 (4) –16.8 kJ mol–1
134. (D H - DU) . . . for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its elements at 298 K is
(R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
(1) –2477.57 J mol–1 (2) 2477.57 J mol–1 (3) –1238.78 J mol–1 (4) 1238.78 J mol–1
135. The equilibrium constant for the reaction SO3 (g) SO2 (g) + ½ O2 (g) is Kc = 4.9 × 10–2. The value of Kc for the reaction 2SO2 (g)+ O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) will be
(1) 9.8 × 10–2 (2) 4.9 × 10–2 (3) 416 (4) 2.40 × 10–3
136. Given the data at 25oC,
Ag + I- ® AgL + e- Eo = 0.152V
Ag ® Ag+ + e- Eo = -0.800V
What is the value of log Ksp for AgI ? (2.303RT/F = 0.059 V F)
(1) –37.83 (2) –16.13 (3) –8.12 (4) +8.612
137. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of an electrolyte of concentration 0.1 M is 100W the conductivity of this solution is 1.29 S m–1. Resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.2 M of the same solution is 520W. The molar conductivity of 0.02 M solution of the electrolyte will be
(1) 1.24 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (2) 12.4 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
(3) 124 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (4) 1240 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
138. The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr: 2 2 NO (g) + Br2 (g) NOBr2 (g)
2 NOBr2 (g) + NO(g) ® 2NOBr (g)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
139. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is maximum for
(1) Li+ (2) Na+ (3) K+ (4) Rb+
140. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to
(1) the same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu
(2) the imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
(3) the appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
(4) the appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear charge
141. How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Six (4) Three
142. The “spin-only” magnetic moment [in units of Bohr magneton, (mB ) of Ni2+ in aqueous solution would be (Atomic number of Ni = 28)
(1) 0 (2) 1.73 (3) 2.84 (4) 4.90
143. The decreasing values of bond angles from NH3 (106o) to SbH3 (101o) down group-15 of the periodic table is due to
(1) decreasing lp-bp repulsion (2) decreasing electronegativity
(3) increasing bp-bp repulsion (4) increasing p-orbital character in sp3
144. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals and the halogens are given. Which of these statements gives the correct picture?
(1) Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali metals and halogens
(2) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic number down the group
(3) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number down the group
(4) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group
145. The structure of the compound that gives a tribromo derivative on treatment with bromine water is
146. The alkene formed as a major product in the above elimination reaction is
147. Increasing order of stability among the three main conformations (i.e. Eclipse, Anti, Gauche) of 2-fluoroethanol is
(1) Eclipse, Anti, Gauche (2) Anti, Gauche, Eclipse
(3) Eclipse, Gauche, Anti (4) Gauche, Eclipse, Anti
148. Reaction of trans-2-phenyl-1-bromocyclopentane on reaction with alcoholic KOH produces
(1) 1-phenylcyclopentene (2) 3-phenylcyclopentene
(3) 4-phenylcyclopentene (4) 2-phenylcyclopentene
149. The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction is
150. The electrophile involved in the above reaction is
(1) 3 trichloromethyl anion (-CCl3 ) (2) formyl cation (+CHO)
(3) 2 dichloromethyl cation (+CHCl2) (4) dichlorocarbene 2 (:CCl2)
-x-
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