2007 SRM University B.Tech MODEL QUESTION PAPER Question paper
SRM UNIVERSITY B.Tech ENTRANCE EXAMINATION  2007 MODEL QUESTION PAPER Duration: 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 PART 1 – PHYSICS 1. The S.I unit of magnetic dipole moment is (a) Am1 (b) Am2 (c) TmA1 (d) TmA2 2. Dimensional formula of Bulk modulus of elasticity ‘K’ is (a) ML1 T2 (b) MLT2 (c) M0 L0 T0 (d) ML2 T2 3. The position of an object moving along xaxis is given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5m and b = 2.5 m/s2 and t is measured in seconds. What is its velocity at t = 2 s ? (a) 100 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) 25 m/s 4. When a body is thrown with a velocity ‘u’ making an angle ? with the horizontal plane, the maximum distance covered by it in the horizontal direction is (a) u2 sin ? g (b) u2 sin 2? g (c) u2 sin 2? 2g (d) u2 cos 2? g 5. The flow is said to be turbulent if Reynolds number is (a) below 1000 (b) greater than 2000 (c) between 1000 & 1500 (d) between 1500 & 2000 6. What is the pressure on a swimmer, 10 m below the surface of a lake? (a) 0.3 atm (b) 20 atm (c) 1 atm (d) 2 atm 7. If the earth suddenly shrinks to half of its present radius, the acceleration due to gravity will be (a) g/2 (b) g/4 (c) 4g (d) 2g 8. Which of the following functions of time represent a simple Harmonic Motion? (a) Se? (b) log (?t) (c) sin ?t – cos ?t (d) sin2 ?t 9. The motion of a simple pendulum swinging through small angles is simple harmonic. The period of oscillation is given by (a) T = 2p v L / g (b) T = p v g / L (c) T = p v L / g (d) T = 2p vL g 10. “Isochoric” is a thermodynamic process in which (a) volume constant (b) temperature constant (c) pressure constant (d) no heat flows between the system and the surroundings 11. For an ideal gas, the relation between molar specific heats at constant pressure and volume, the relation Cp Cv= (a) 3/2 KBT (b) R (c) 3R (d) 4R 12. The temperature of the surface of the sun is nearly equal to (a) 1000 K (b) 6000 K (c) 600 K (d) 3000 K 13. For a perfectly black body, the absorptive power is (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 0.5 (d) infinity 14. Two sources are said to be coherent, if they have (a) constant phase difference, same amplitude and same frequency (b) phase difference zero, amplitude same and different frequency (c) phase difference varying and amplitude different but same frequency (d) phase difference varying but amplitude and frequency same 15. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is halved and the distance between the slit and the screen is doubled then the fringe width will be (a) halved (b) unchanged (c) doubled (d) increased by 4 times the original 16. The magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance (a) varies directly with temperature (b) varies inversely with temperature (c) is independent of temperature (d) is positive and very large 17. The magnitude of the induced emf in a circuit is equal to the change of magnetic flux linked with the circuit. This is (a) Faraday’s first law (b) Faraday’s third law (c) Lenz’s law (d) Fleming’s law 18. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, which one of the following is to be connected to the galvanometer (a) A low resistance in parallel (b) A high resistance in series (c) A high resistance in parallel (d) A low resistance series 19. In a ruby laser population inversion is achieved by (a) Aluminum oxide (b) Chromium flash tube (c) Xenon flash tube (d) Chromium ions 20. Laser light is intense because (a) It has very less number of photons that are in phase (b) It has very less number of photons that are not in phase (c) It has very large number of photons that are not in phase (d) It has very large number of photons that are not in phase has that are in phase 21. Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same number of (a) protons and neutrons (b) protons but different number of neutrons (c) neutrons but different number of protons (d) protons but different number of electrons 22. The mass defect in a nuclear fusion reaction is 0.3%. What amount of energy will be liberated in one kg fusion reaction? (a) 2.7×1014 Joule (b) 27×103 Joule (c) 2.7×102 Joule (d) 7.2×1014 Joule 23. In pure germanium, the Fermi level is about (a) half way in the forbidden gap (b) just below the conduction band (c) just above the valence band (d) just above the acceptor level 24. The number densities of electrons and holes in pure Si at 27°C are equal and its value is 2.0×1016m3. On doping with Indium, the hole density increases to 4.3×1022m3, find the electron density in doped Si. (a) 18.89×109m3 (b) 889×109m3 (c) 8.89×1022m3 (d) 8.89×109m3 25. DeMorgan’s theorem m A + B = (a) A+B (b) A + B (c) A .B (d) A + B PART 2 – CHEMISTRY 26. Combustion reaction are always, (a) endothermic (b) not affected by temperature changes (c) exothermic (d) accompanying with heat absorption. 27. Calorific values of fuels can be determined from (a) enthalpies of neutralization (b) enthalpies of combustion (c) enthalpies of formation (d) enthalpies of fusion 28. Which of the following relationship for the relation C (gr) + ½ O2? CO2(g) is corrent (a) ? H = ? E – ½ RT (b) ? H = ? E + ½ RT (c) ? E = ? H (d) ? E = ? H – ½ RT 29. For gaseous reaction ?H and ? E are related as, (a) ? H = ? E (b) ? H = ? E – RT ?n(g) (c) ? H = ? E + RT ?n(g) (d) ? E = ? E – (RT)?n 30. Hess’s law deals with, (a) Heat changes accompanying a chemical process (b) Rates of chemical reaction (c) Equilibrium constant of a reaction (d) Influence of temperature on a reaction 31. The relation between equilibrium constant KC and the rate constant Kf , Kb is, (a) Kc = Kb / Kf (b) Kc = Kf / Kb (c) Kc = Kf Kb (d) Kc = Kf – Kb 32. The effect of pressure, concentration, temperature on equilibrium reactants can be predicted by (a) law of mass action (b) Le chaterlier – Braun principle (c) Ostwald’s law (d) D alton’s law 33. Catalyst used in the Haber’s process for the manufacture of ammonia are (a) Iron (b) Platinum and molybdenum (c) Iron and vanadium pent oxide (d) Platinum and Iron 34. Along the same period, the ionic radii of the element, (a) decreases (b) Increases (c) Neither increases nor decreases (d) Increases then decreases 35. Which element would form an ion whose radius is larger than that of its atom? (a) Lithium (b) Sodium (c) Chlorine (d) Potassium 36. The gradual decrease in the size of the lanthanides with increase in atomic number is due to (a) less screening effect of 4f electron (b) greater screening effect of 4f electron (c) greater screening effect of 5d electron (d) greater screening effect of 6s electron 37. Isotopes of uranium are used in (a) Photography (b) Medicine (c) Nuclear fission (d) Volumetric analysis 38. The metal used in galvanization of iron is (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Zinc (d) Tin 39. Mercury vapour lamp gives (a) White light (b) Blue light (c) Yellow light (d) Red light 40. The primary valency of iron in K3 [Fe(CN) 6] is (a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 41. Which of the following is most likely to undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction by SN1 mechanism? (a) CH3Br (b) (CH3) 3CBr (c) CH3CH2Br (d) CH3CH2CH2Br 42. Elimination reaction are inverse of (a) Substitution (b) Addition (c) Reduction (d) Dehydration 43. Which nitro alkene when treated with nitrous acid and NaOH gives red colors. (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) All the above 44. CH3CH2Br alc.KOH A HBr B aq.KOH C the products C is (a) Propene (b) 2propanol (c) 1propanol (d) propyne 45. Which one of the following undergoes aldol condensation? (a) CH3CHO (b) CCl3CHO (c) HCHO (d) (CH3) 3 CHO 46. Aspirin is prepared from (a) Picric acid (b) Salicylic acid (c) Mesooxalic acid (d) Phthalic acid 47. What is Baeyer’s reagent? (a) Acidified KMnO4 (b) Alkaline KMnO4 (c) Acidified K2Cr2O7 (d) Alkaline K2 Cr2O7 48. The monomer present in rubber is (a) Dimethyl butane (b) Acetone (c) Isoprene (d) Methyl ethyl ketone 49. Skin disorder are caused by the deficiency of (a) Riboflavin (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Retinol (d) Thiamine 50. Dye used in calico printing is (a) Nitro dyes (b) Grain dyes (c) Basic dyes (d) nitroso dyes PART 3 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 51. The word “ EUREKA” is attributed to (a) Socrates (b) Einstein (c) Archimedes (d) Galileo 52. Our National Anthem was composed by (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Subash Chandra Bose 53. The Kumbh Mela is celebrated in (a) Secunderabad (b) Allahabad (c) Ahmedabad (d) Lucknow 54. Silicosis, a form of Tuberculosis, occurs due to inhalation of (a) Silicones (b) Coal dust (c) Asbestos dust (d) free silica 55. The first atom bomb dropped on Hiroshima, Japan was in the year (a) 1945 (b) 1944 (c) 1946 (d) 1947 56. Plaster of Paris is made by using (a) Magnesium (b) Gypsum (c) Calcium (d) Sodium 57. “It is elementary Dr. Watson” is a famous quote in the story of (a) James Bond (b) Robin Hood (c) Harry Potter (d) Sherlock Holmes 58. __________ is known as “THE NIGHTINGALE OF INDIA” (a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Mother Teresa (d) Indira Gandhi 59. The first elected president of Indian National Congress is (a) Subash Chandra Bose (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Vallababhai Patel (d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 60. Siachen Glacier is situated in (a) Pakistan (b) Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (c) India (d) China PART 4 : MATHS 61. The relation R = {(1,1), (2,2), (3,3)} defined on the set A = {1,2,3} is12 (a) reflexive and symmetric (b) reflexive and transitive (c) symmetric and transitive (d) reflexive, symmetric and transitive 62. If A = {1,2,3,4,5,6} B = {2,3,4,6,7}, then AB is (a) {1,5} (b) {2,3,4,6} (c) {7} (d) f 63. A relation R is said to be a partial order relation if R is (a) reflexive and symmetric (b) reflexive and transitive (c) symmetric and transitive (d) reflexive, antisymmetric and transitive 64. A relation R is said to be an equivalence relation if R is (a) reflexive and symmetric (b) reflexive and transitive (c) symmetric and transitive (d) reflexive, symmetric and transitive 65. If z1 and z2 any two complex numbers, then z1 + z2 2 + z1  z2 2 is (a) 2z1z2 (b) 2{z1 + z2} (c) 2{z12 + z22} (d) 2{z12  z22} 66. If a = 3+2i and z = 5+7i, then the points represented by the complex numbers az, 2az, 3az are (a) vertices of an equilateral triangle (b) collinear (c) vertices of an isosceles triangle (d) vertices of a right angled triangle. 67. Which of the following is not true? (a) z = z, (b) z + z = 2 Re (z), (c) z  z = 2 Im(z), (d) Im(z) = z  . 68. cos(A+B) cos (AB) = (a) sin2A – sin2B (b) sin2A – cos2B (c) cos2A – sin2B (d) cos2A – cos2B 69. The value of tan230° + 2sin245° + 1/3 sin2 60° is (a) 15/12 (b) 17/12 (c) 19/12 (d) 21/12 70. In a ?ABC, = (a) a + b c (b) a2 + b2 c2 (c) a2  b2 c2 (d) a2  b2 c 71. The value of is (a) 0 (b) 52 (c) 53 (d) 59 72. If ? = then is (a) 6? (b)  6? (c) 8? (d)  8? sin(A  B) sin(A + B) 52 53 54 53 54 55 54 55 56 1 7 2 1 8 4 2 3 5 3 3 6 7 8 3 4 8 10 73. The equation = 0 has the solution (a) x = 1, 2, 3, (b) x = 2, 3, 4 (c) x = 0, 1, + i (d) x = 0, 1, 2 74. The value of , i2 = 1, is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 75. If the matrices and are singular then mn = (a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 / 2 (d) 1 / 2 76. The inverse of the matrix is (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 1 1 8 3 5 77. If one of the e roots of x2 + ax + b is 3  i v 2 and a and b are real, then the values of a and b are (a)  6 and 7 (b)  6 and 11 (c) 6 and  7 (d) 6 and –11 78. The roots of 6x2 – x 15 = 0 are (a) 5/3, 3.2 (b) 5/3,3/2 2x 0 0 x + 2 x + 1 0 x + 3 x + 4 x2 + 1 1 + 2i 1 – I 1+ i 1 – 2i 1 2 4 m 0 2 1 n 0 0 3 2n 4 1 6 2 0 1 5 –1 3 1 1 1 1 8 3 5 1 1 1 8 3 5 1 1 1 8 3 5 (c) 5/3, 3/2 (d) 5/3, 3/2 79. If p and q be the roots of 3x2 –x – 5 = 0, then p+q and pq are (a) 1/3,5/3 (b) 1/3,5/3 (c) 1/3, 5/3 (d) 1/3, 5/3 80. The roots of 2x2 6x +7 = 0 are (a) real and different (b) real and equal (c) rational (d) imaginary 81. If the equation x2 –m (2x8)15=0 has equal roots, than the value of m is (a) 3 or 5 (b) 3 or 5 (c) 3 or 5 (d) 2 or 3 82. If a and ß are the roots 2x2  5x + 2 = 0, then the equation whose roots are (a+ß) and aß/2 is (a) 4x2 – 12x + 5 = 0 (b) 4x2 + 12x + 5 = 0 (c) 4x2 + 12x 5 = 0 (d) 4x2 12x 5 = 0 83. The point on the curve y = 2xx2 at which the tangent is parallel to the line x+2y = 0 is (a) (5 / 4, 10 / 13) (b) (5 / 2, 5 / 13) (c) (5 / 4, 15 / 16) (d) (15 / 2, 12 / 13) 84. Area between y2 = 4ax and y = x is (a) 8a2 3 (b) 16a2 3 (c) 32a2 3 (d) 64a2 3 85. The volume of the solid obtained by rotating the ellipse = 1 about its minor axis is (a) 3p 20 (b) 400p 3 (c) 400p 5 (d) 400p 7 86. The area bounded by the curve xy – 12 = 0 and x = 0, y = 1, y = e2 is (a) 12 sq.units (b) e12 sq .units (c) 24 sq .units (d) e24 sq .units 87. The volume generated by revolving the first quadrant area bounded by the parabola Y2 = 4ax and the line y = 2a about y axis is 50p, then ‘a’ is (a) 5 (b) (c) 25 (d) (25) 1/ 3 88. The general solution of x dy = (xy) dx is (a) 2xy = x2 + c (b) xy = y2 + c (c) xy + c = y (d) 2xy = c x2 89. The solution of x2 = x2 + xy + y2 is (a) tan  1 ( y / x) = log x + c (b) tan  1 (x / y) = log x + c (c) tan  1 (x / y) = log y + c (d) tan  1 ( y / x) = log y + c 90. If the integrating factor of a linear equation is sinx then the respective P is (a) sinx (b) cosx (c) tanx x2 y2 16 25 + 5 2 1/ 3 dy dx (d) cotx. 91. The differential equation obtained by eliminating a and b from the relation y = a cos(4x+b) is (a) (D3 – 16 D – 1)y = 0 (b) (D2 – 4 D)y =  4 (c) (D2 + 16)y = 0 (d) (D2 – 16)y =  4 92. If y = 2x+c is a tangent to the parabola y2 = 16x, then the value of c is (a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 5 (d) 2 93. The center and one vertex of an ellipse of eccentricity 0.5 are (3,1) and (3,5). Its equation is (a) (b) (c) 4(x  3) 2 + 3( y 1) 2 = 48 (d) 3(x  3) 2 + 4 (y 1) 2 = 48 94. The length of semi latus rectum of the ellipse 16x 2 + 25y 2 = 400 is (a) 16 / 5 (b) 16 / 25 (c) 25 / 16 (d) 32 / 5 95. The angle between the curves x 2 + y 2 = 8 and x 2  4x + y 2 = 0 is (a) p / 2 (b) p / 3 (c) p / 4 (d) p / 6 96. Equation of the hyperbola whose vertices are (•}3,0) and foci (•}5,0) is (a) 16x 2  9y 2 =144 (b) 9x2 16y 2 =144 (c) 25x2  9y 2 = 225 (d) 9x2  25y2 = 81 (x  3) 2 (y  1) 2 16 + 1 2 = 1 (x  1) 2 (y  1) 2 16 12 + = 1 97. If (a x b) x c = a x (b x c) then which of the following incorrect? (a) c x a = 0 (b) ( c x a ) x b = 0 (c) ( c x a ) . b = 0 (d) c . a = 0 98. If a, b and a + b are the vectors having equal magnitude then the angle between a and b is (a) p / 3 (b) 2p / 3 (c) p / 4 (d) 3p / 4 99. For the following distribution The value of P[1 < x = 2] is (a) 1/9 (b) 1/3 (c) 5/9 (d) 2/9 100. For a binomial distribution with mean 6 and S.D = v2 , the value of n is (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12 x 1 0 1 2 3 4 P(x) 1/9 2/9 1/9 1/3 1/9 1/9 PART 5 : Biology 101. Cryptogamic plants are (a) Bryophytes (b) Pteredophytes (c) Bryophytes and Pteredophytes (d) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms 102. This part of embryo grows into the stem (a) Radicle (b) Plumule (c) Tuber (d) Cladode 103. Seed producing plants are known as (a) Cryptogams (b) Phanerogams (c) Angiosperms (d) Gymnosperms 104. The highest taxon in taxonomic hierarchy (a) Class (b) Kingdom (c) Family (d) Genus 105. ICBN can expanded as (a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature (b) International Code for Bacterial Nomenclature (c) International Code for Bryophyte Nomenclature (d) International Code for Biological Nomenclature 106. Phylogenetic system of plant classification was proposed by (a) John Ray (b) Bentham & Hooker (c) Engler & Prantl (d) Carolus Lunnacus 107. The meristems at the bases of internodes of monocots are (a) Apical meristem (b) Lateral meristem (c) Intercalary meristem (d) Permanent meristem 108. Conducting cells of Xylem (a) Treachery elements (b) Sieve cells (c) Sieve tube members (d) Sclerenchyma 109. Perianth is present in (a) Monocots (b) Pteridophytes (c) Bryophytes (d) Dicot 110. Casparian strips are made up of (a) Pectin (b) Lecithin (c) Suberin (d) Phytin 111. Coupling and Repulsion as two aspects of a single phenomenon was discovered by (a) Bateson (b) Mendel (c) Morgan (d) Punnet 112. Golgibodies are otherwise known as (a) peroxisomes (b) dictyosomes (c) mesosomes (d) Oxysomes 113. The movement of plants induced by alternation of day and night (a) Thermonasty (b) Seismonasty (c) Photonasty (d) Nyctinasty 114. In Hills reaction ____________ is formed (a) Ferricyanide (b) DCPIP (c) Ferro cyanide (d) Carbondioxide 115. Mobilization of stored food in germinating seeds in triggered by (a) Auxins (b) Gibberellins (c) Cytokinins (d) Ethylene 116. PEG is a (a) Mutagen (b) Sterilant (c) Fusogen (d) Nutrient 117. A good vector for plant biotechnology is (a) Agrobacterium (b) Rhizobium (c) Actinomycetes (d) Baculovirus 118. A transgenic plant with nutritive improvement is (a) Bt cotton (b) Bt corn (c) Golden rice (d) Edible vaccine 119. The invitro plants are (a) Autotrophic (b) Heterotrophic (c) Parasites (d) Symbioti 120. This is needed to activate trypsinogen (a) HCl (b) Enterokinase (c) Caseinogen (d) Trypsin 121. Parasite mode of nutrition is seen in (a) Bird’s embryo (b) Reptilian embryo (c) Amphibian embryo (d) Mammalian embryo 122. The antihaemorrhagic vitamin is (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K 123. This gives immediate energy to human body (a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Sucrose (d) Lactose 124. Animal liver contains (a) Riboflavin (b) Cyanocobalamine (c) Thiamine (d) Nicotinic acid 125. The protein found in hair is (a) Globular (b) Conjugated (c) Fibrous (d) Denatured 126. The thermo regulating centre of the body is (a) Pituitary (b) Hypothalamus (c) Thyroid (d) Cerbellum 127. This is both an endocrine and exocrine gland (a) Thyroid gland (b) Pancreas (c) Adrenal gland (d) Parathyroid 128. Ancon breed sheep are (a) Homozygous dominant (b) Homozygous recessive (c) Heterozygous dominant (d) Heterozygous recessive 129. The crossing of the F1 generation with a parental genotype is (a) Test cross (b) Back cross (c) Multiple Cross (d) Base cross 130. The female in humans are (a) Heterogametic (b) Hermaphrodite (c) Homogametic (d) both homogametic and heterogametic 131. Mutations are maximum in (a) Conserved sequences (b) Hotspots region (c) Regulatory sequences (d) All over the genome 132. The blood groups were discovered by (a) Landsteiner (b) Lewisford (c) Wilkins (d) Francis crick 133. Sex determination in man is similar to that of (a) Benelia (b) Drosophila (c) Pigeon (d) Crab 134. Placenta is (a) Embryonic structure (b) Extra embryonic (c) Amphiembryonic (d) Non cellular 135. Production of functional sperm is called (a) Spermato genesis (b) Spermio genesis (c) Acrosomal modification (d) Axiogenesis 136. The cleavage in mammalian ova is (a) Simple holoblastic (b) Heteroblastic (c) Unique homoblastic (d) Multiblastic 137. The largest lymphoid tissue is (a) Spleen (b) Liver (c) Kidney (d) Pancreas 138. Abnormal growth of adipose tissue (a) Obesity (b) Polyphagia (c) Diabetes (d) polyurea 139. Nocturnal periodicity is displayed by (a) Wuchereria (b) Clostridum (c) Arbovirus (d) Yersinia 140. Whooping cough is also known as (a) Tuberculosis (b) Tetanus (c) Pertussis (d) Diptheria * * * * *
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