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# 2007 SRM University General B.Tech MODEL QUESTION PAPER Question paper

 Course: B.Tech University/board: SRM University

SRM UNIVERSITY
B.Tech ENTRANCE EXAMINATION - 2007
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Duration: 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 100
PART 1 – PHYSICS
1. The S.I unit of magnetic dipole moment is
(a) Am-1
(b) Am2
(c) TmA-1
(d) TmA-2
2. Dimensional formula of Bulk modulus of elasticity ‘K’ is
(a) ML-1 T-2
(b) MLT-2
(c) M0 L0 T0
(d) ML-2 T-2
3. The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5m and
b = 2.5 m/s2 and t is measured in seconds. What is its velocity at t = 2 s ?
(a) 100 m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 5 m/s
(d) 25 m/s
4. When a body is thrown with a velocity ‘u’ making an angle ? with the horizontal plane,
the maximum distance covered by it in the horizontal direction is
(a) u2 sin ?
g
(b) u2 sin 2?
g
(c) u2 sin 2?
2g
(d) u2 cos 2?
g
5. The flow is said to be turbulent if Reynolds number is
(a) below 1000
(b) greater than 2000
(c) between 1000 & 1500
(d) between 1500 & 2000
6. What is the pressure on a swimmer, 10 m below the surface of a lake?
(a) 0.3 atm
(b) 20 atm
(c) 1 atm
(d) 2 atm
7. If the earth suddenly shrinks to half of its present radius, the acceleration due to gravity
will be
(a) g/2
(b) g/4
(c) 4g
(d) 2g
8. Which of the following functions of time represent a simple Harmonic Motion?
(a) Se-?
(b) log (?t)
(c) sin ?t – cos ?t
(d) sin2 ?t
9. The motion of a simple pendulum swinging through small angles is simple harmonic.
The period of oscillation is given by
(a) T = 2p v L / g
(b) T = p v g / L
(c) T = p v L / g
(d) T = 2p vL
g
10. “Isochoric” is a thermodynamic process in which
(a) volume constant
(b) temperature constant
(c) pressure constant
(d) no heat flows between the system and the surroundings
11. For an ideal gas, the relation between molar specific heats at constant pressure and
volume, the relation Cp- Cv=
(a) 3/2 KBT
(b) R
(c) 3R
(d) 4R
12. The temperature of the surface of the sun is nearly equal to
(a) 1000 K
(b) 6000 K
(c) 600 K
(d) 3000 K
13. For a perfectly black body, the absorptive power is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 0.5
(d) infinity
14. Two sources are said to be coherent, if they have
(a) constant phase difference, same amplitude and same frequency
(b) phase difference zero, amplitude same and different frequency
(c) phase difference varying and amplitude different but same frequency
(d) phase difference varying but amplitude and frequency same
15. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is halved and the
distance between the slit and the screen is doubled then the fringe width will be
(a) halved
(b) unchanged
(c) doubled
(d) increased by 4 times the original
16. The magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) varies directly with temperature
(b) varies inversely with temperature
(c) is independent of temperature
(d) is positive and very large
17. The magnitude of the induced emf in a circuit is equal to the change of magnetic flux
linked with the circuit. This is
(a) Faraday’s first law
(b) Faraday’s third law
(c) Lenz’s law
(d) Fleming’s law
18. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, which one of the following is to be
connected to the galvanometer
(a) A low resistance in parallel
(b) A high resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in parallel
(d) A low resistance series
19. In a ruby laser population inversion is achieved by
(a) Aluminum oxide
(b) Chromium flash tube
(c) Xenon flash tube
(d) Chromium ions
20. Laser light is intense because
(a) It has very less number of photons that are in phase
(b) It has very less number of photons that are not in phase
(c) It has very large number of photons that are not in phase
(d) It has very large number of photons that are not in phase has that are in phase
21. Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same number of
(a) protons and neutrons
(b) protons but different number of neutrons
(c) neutrons but different number of protons
(d) protons but different number of electrons
22. The mass defect in a nuclear fusion reaction is 0.3%. What amount of energy will be
liberated in one kg fusion reaction?
(a) 2.7×1014 Joule
(b) 27×103 Joule
(c) 2.7×102 Joule
(d) 7.2×1014 Joule
23. In pure germanium, the Fermi level is about
(a) half way in the forbidden gap
(b) just below the conduction band
(c) just above the valence band
(d) just above the acceptor level
24. The number densities of electrons and holes in pure Si at 27°C are equal and its value is
2.0×1016m-3. On doping with Indium, the hole density increases to 4.3×1022m-3, find the
electron density in doped Si.
(a) 18.89×109m-3
(b) 889×109m-3
(c) 8.89×1022m-3
(d) 8.89×109m-3
25. De-Morgan’s theorem m A + B =
(a) A+B
(b) A + B
(c) A .B
(d) A + B
PART 2 – CHEMISTRY
26. Combustion reaction are always,
(a) endothermic
(b) not affected by temperature changes
(c) exothermic
(d) accompanying with heat absorption.
27. Calorific values of fuels can be determined from
(a) enthalpies of neutralization
(b) enthalpies of combustion
(c) enthalpies of formation
(d) enthalpies of fusion
28. Which of the following relationship for the relation C (gr) + ½ O2? CO2(g) is corrent
(a) ? H = ? E – ½ RT
(b) ? H = ? E + ½ RT
(c) ? E = ? H
(d) ? E = ? H – ½ RT
29. For gaseous reaction ?H and ? E are related as,
(a) ? H = ? E
(b) ? H = ? E – RT ?n(g)
(c) ? H = ? E + RT ?n(g)
(d) ? E = ? E – (RT)?n
30. Hess’s law deals with,
(a) Heat changes accompanying a chemical process
(b) Rates of chemical reaction
(c) Equilibrium constant of a reaction
(d) Influence of temperature on a reaction
31. The relation between equilibrium constant KC and the rate constant Kf , Kb is,
(a) Kc = Kb / Kf
(b) Kc = Kf / Kb
(c) Kc = Kf Kb
(d) Kc = Kf – Kb
32. The effect of pressure, concentration, temperature on equilibrium reactants can be
predicted by
(a) law of mass action
(b) Le chaterlier – Braun principle
(c) Ostwald’s law
(d) D alton’s law
33. Catalyst used in the Haber’s process for the manufacture of ammonia are
(a) Iron
(b) Platinum and molybdenum
(c) Iron and vanadium pent oxide
(d) Platinum and Iron
34. Along the same period, the ionic radii of the element,
(a) decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Neither increases nor decreases
(d) Increases then decreases
35. Which element would form an ion whose radius is larger than that of its atom?
(a) Lithium
(b) Sodium
(c) Chlorine
(d) Potassium
36. The gradual decrease in the size of the lanthanides with increase in atomic number is
due to
(a) less screening effect of 4f electron
(b) greater screening effect of 4f electron
(c) greater screening effect of 5d electron
(d) greater screening effect of 6s electron
37. Isotopes of uranium are used in
(a) Photography
(b) Medicine
(c) Nuclear fission
(d) Volumetric analysis
38. The metal used in galvanization of iron is
(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Zinc
(d) Tin
39. Mercury vapour lamp gives
(a) White light
(b) Blue light
(c) Yellow light
(d) Red light
40. The primary valency of iron in K3 [Fe(CN) 6] is
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
41. Which of the following is most likely to undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction by
SN1 mechanism?
(a) CH3Br
(b) (CH3) 3CBr
(c) CH3CH2Br
(d) CH3CH2CH2Br
42. Elimination reaction are inverse of
(a) Substitution
(c) Reduction
(d) Dehydration
43. Which nitro alkene when treated with nitrous acid and NaOH gives red colors.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All the above
44. CH3CH2Br alc.KOH A HBr B aq.KOH C the products C is
(a) Propene
(b) 2-propanol
(c) 1-propanol
(d) propyne
45. Which one of the following undergoes aldol condensation?
(a) CH3CHO
(b) CCl3CHO
(c) HCHO
(d) (CH3) 3 CHO
46. Aspirin is prepared from
(a) Picric acid
(b) Salicylic acid
(c) Meso-oxalic acid
(d) Phthalic acid
47. What is Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) Acidified KMnO4
(b) Alkaline KMnO4
(c) Acidified K2Cr2O7
(d) Alkaline K2 Cr2O7
48. The monomer present in rubber is
(a) Dimethyl butane
(b) Acetone
(c) Isoprene
(d) Methyl ethyl ketone
49. Skin disorder are caused by the deficiency of
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Retinol
(d) Thiamine
50. Dye used in calico printing is
(a) Nitro dyes
(b) Grain dyes
(c) Basic dyes
(d) nitroso dyes
PART 3 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
51. The word “ EUREKA” is attributed to
(a) Socrates
(b) Einstein
(c) Archimedes
(d) Galileo
52. Our National Anthem was composed by
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Subash Chandra Bose
53. The Kumbh Mela is celebrated in
(d) Lucknow
54. Silicosis, a form of Tuberculosis, occurs due to inhalation of
(a) Silicones
(b) Coal dust
(c) Asbestos dust
(d) free silica
55. The first atom bomb dropped on Hiroshima, Japan was in the year
(a) 1945
(b) 1944
(c) 1946
(d) 1947
56. Plaster of Paris is made by using
(a) Magnesium
(b) Gypsum
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium
57. “It is elementary Dr. Watson” is a famous quote in the story of
(a) James Bond
(b) Robin Hood
(c) Harry Potter
(d) Sherlock Holmes
58. __________ is known as “THE NIGHTINGALE OF INDIA”
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mother Teresa
(d) Indira Gandhi
59. The first elected president of Indian National Congress is
(a) Subash Chandra Bose
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vallababhai Patel
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
60. Siachen Glacier is situated in
(a) Pakistan
(b) Pakistan Occupied Kashmir
(c) India
(d) China
PART 4 : MATHS
61. The relation R = {(1,1), (2,2), (3,3)} defined on the set A = {1,2,3} is12
(a) reflexive and symmetric
(b) reflexive and transitive
(c) symmetric and transitive
(d) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
62. If A = {1,2,3,4,5,6} B = {2,3,4,6,7}, then A-B is
(a) {1,5}
(b) {2,3,4,6}
(c) {7}
(d) f
63. A relation R is said to be a partial order relation if R is
(a) reflexive and symmetric
(b) reflexive and transitive
(c) symmetric and transitive
(d) reflexive, antisymmetric and transitive
64. A relation R is said to be an equivalence relation if R is
(a) reflexive and symmetric
(b) reflexive and transitive
(c) symmetric and transitive
(d) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
65. If z1 and z2 any two complex numbers, then |z1 + z2 |2 + |z1 - z2 |2 is
(a) 2z1z2
(b) 2{|z1| + |z2|}
(c) 2{|z1|2 + |z2|2}
(d) 2{|z1|2 - |z2|2}
66. If a = 3+2i and z = 5+7i, then the points represented by the complex numbers az,
2az, 3az are
(a) vertices of an equilateral triangle
(b) collinear
(c) vertices of an isosceles triangle
(d) vertices of a right angled triangle.
67. Which of the following is not true?
(a) z = z,
(b) z + z = 2 Re (z),
(c) z - z = 2 Im(z),
(d) Im(z) =| z | .
68. cos(A+B) cos (A-B) =
(a) sin2A – sin2B
(b) sin2A – cos2B
(c) cos2A – sin2B
(d) cos2A – cos2B
69. The value of tan230° + 2sin245° + 1/3 sin2 60° is
(a) 15/12
(b) 17/12
(c) 19/12
(d) 21/12
70. In a ?ABC, =
(a) a + b
c
(b) a2 + b2
c2
(c) a2 - b2
c2
(d) a2 - b2
c
71. The value of is
(a) 0
(b) 52
(c) 53
(d) 59
72. If ? = then is
(a) 6?
(b) - 6?
(c) 8?
(d) - 8?
sin(A - B)
sin(A + B)
52 53 54
53 54 55
54 55 56
1 7 -2
-1 -8 4
2 3 -5
3 -3 6
-7 8 -3
-4 8 -10
73. The equation = 0 has the solution
(a) x = -1, -2, -3,
(b) x = -2, -3, -4
(c) x = 0, -1, + i
(d) x = 0, 1, 2
74. The value of , i2 = 1, is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
75. If the matrices and are singular then mn =
(a) 2
(b) -2
(c) 1 / 2
(d) -1 / 2
76. The inverse of the matrix is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 1 1 -1
8 -3 5
77. If one of the e roots of x2 + ax + b is 3 - i v 2 and a and b are real, then the values
of a and b are
(a) - 6 and 7
(b) - 6 and 11
(c) 6 and - 7
(d) 6 and –11
78. The roots of 6x2 – x -15 = 0 are
(a) 5/3, 3.2
(b) -5/3,3/2
2x 0 0
x + 2 x + 1 0
x + 3 x + 4 x2 + 1
1 + 2i 1 – I
1+ i 1 – 2i
-1 2 4
m 0 -2
1 n 0
0 3 2n
4 -1 6
2 0 1
5 –1
3 1
1 1 1
8 3 5
1 -1 1
8 3 -5
1 1 1
8 -3 5
(c) 5/3, -3/2
(d) -5/3, -3/2
79. If p and q be the roots of 3x2 –x – 5 = 0, then p+q and pq are
(a) 1/3,5/3
(b) -1/3,5/3
(c) 1/3, -5/3
(d) -1/3, -5/3
80. The roots of 2x2 -6x +7 = 0 are
(a) real and different
(b) real and equal
(c) rational
(d) imaginary
81. If the equation x2 –m (2x-8)-15=0 has equal roots, than the value of m is
(a) 3 or 5
(b) -3 or 5
(c) 3 or -5
(d) 2 or 3
82. If a and ß are the roots 2x2 - 5x + 2 = 0, then the equation whose roots are (a+ß)
and aß/2 is
(a) 4x2 – 12x + 5 = 0
(b) 4x2 + 12x + 5 = 0
(c) 4x2 + 12x -5 = 0
(d) 4x2 -12x -5 = 0
83. The point on the curve y = 2x-x2 at which the tangent is parallel to the line x+2y = 0 is
(a) (-5 / 4, -10 / 13)
(b) (5 / 2, 5 / 13)
(c) (5 / 4, 15 / 16)
(d) (-15 / 2, -12 / 13)
84. Area between y2 = 4ax and y = x is
(a) 8a2
3
(b) 16a2
3
(c) 32a2
3
(d) 64a2
3
85. The volume of the solid obtained by rotating the ellipse = 1 about its minor axis is
(a) 3p
20
(b) 400p
3
(c) 400p
5
(d) 400p
7
86. The area bounded by the curve xy – 12 = 0 and x = 0, y = 1, y = e2 is
(a) 12 sq.units
(b) e12 sq .units
(c) 24 sq .units
(d) e24 sq .units
87. The volume generated by revolving the first quadrant area bounded by the parabola
Y2 = 4ax and the line y = 2a about y- axis is 50p, then ‘a’ is
(a) 5
(b)
(c) 25
(d) (25) 1/ 3
88. The general solution of x dy = (x-y) dx is
(a) 2xy = x2 + c
(b) xy = y2 + c
(c) xy + c = y
(d) 2xy = c x2
89. The solution of x2 = x2 + xy + y2 is
(a) tan - 1 ( y / x) = log x + c
(b) tan - 1 (x / y) = log x + c
(c) tan - 1 (x / y) = log y + c
(d) tan - 1 ( y / x) = log y + c
90. If the integrating factor of a linear equation is sinx then the respective P is
(a) sinx
(b) cosx
(c) tanx
x2 y2
16 25
+
5
2
1/ 3
dy
dx
(d) cotx.
91. The differential equation obtained by eliminating a and b from the relation y = a cos(4x+b) is
(a) (D3 – 16 D – 1)y = 0
(b) (D2 – 4 D)y = - 4
(c) (D2 + 16)y = 0
(d) (D2 – 16)y = - 4
92. If y = 2x+c is a tangent to the parabola y2 = 16x, then the value of c is
(a) 4
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 2
93. The center and one vertex of an ellipse of eccentricity 0.5 are (3,1) and (3,5). Its equation is
(a)
(b)
(c) 4(x - 3) 2 + 3( y -1) 2 = 48
(d) 3(x - 3) 2 + 4 (y -1) 2 = 48
94. The length of semi latus rectum of the ellipse 16x 2 + 25y 2 = 400 is
(a) 16 / 5
(b) 16 / 25
(c) 25 / 16
(d) 32 / 5
95. The angle between the curves x 2 + y 2 = 8 and x 2 - 4x + y 2 = 0 is
(a) p / 2
(b) p / 3
(c) p / 4
(d) p / 6
96. Equation of the hyperbola whose vertices are (•}3,0) and foci (•}5,0) is
(a) 16x 2 - 9y 2 =144
(b) 9x2 -16y 2 =144
(c) 25x2 - 9y 2 = 225
(d) 9x2 - 25y2 = 81
(x - 3) 2 (y - 1) 2
16 + 1 2 = 1
(x - 1) 2 (y - 1) 2
16 12
+ = 1
97. If (a x b) x c = a x (b x c) then which of the following incorrect?
(a) c x a = 0
(b) ( c x a ) x b = 0
(c) ( c x a ) . b = 0
(d) c . a = 0
98. If a, b and a + b are the vectors having equal magnitude then the angle between
a and b is
(a) p / 3
(b) 2p / 3
(c) p / 4
(d) 3p / 4
99. For the following distribution
The value of P[1 < x = 2] is
(a) 1/9
(b) 1/3
(c) 5/9
(d) 2/9
100. For a binomial distribution with mean 6 and S.D = v2 , the value of n is
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
x -1 0 1 2 3 4
P(x) 1/9 2/9 1/9 1/3 1/9 1/9
PART 5 : Biology
101. Cryptogamic plants are
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Pteredophytes
(c) Bryophytes and Pteredophytes
(d) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
102. This part of embryo grows into the stem
(b) Plumule
(c) Tuber
103. Seed producing plants are known as
(a) Cryptogams
(b) Phanerogams
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Gymnosperms
104. The highest taxon in taxonomic hierarchy
(a) Class
(b) Kingdom
(c) Family
(d) Genus
105. ICBN can expanded as
(a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(b) International Code for Bacterial Nomenclature
(c) International Code for Bryophyte Nomenclature
(d) International Code for Biological Nomenclature
106. Phylogenetic system of plant classification was proposed by
(a) John Ray
(b) Bentham & Hooker
(c) Engler & Prantl
(d) Carolus Lunnacus
107. The meristems at the bases of internodes of monocots are
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Lateral meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Permanent meristem
108. Conducting cells of Xylem
(a) Treachery elements
(b) Sieve cells
(c) Sieve tube members
(d) Sclerenchyma
109. Perianth is present in
(a) Monocots
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Dicot
110. Casparian strips are made up of
(a) Pectin
(b) Lecithin
(c) Suberin
(d) Phytin
111. Coupling and Repulsion as two aspects of a single phenomenon was discovered by
(a) Bateson
(b) Mendel
(c) Morgan
(d) Punnet
112. Golgibodies are otherwise known as
(a) peroxisomes
(b) dictyosomes
(c) mesosomes
(d) Oxysomes
113. The movement of plants induced by alternation of day and night
(a) Thermonasty
(b) Seismonasty
(c) Photonasty
(d) Nyctinasty
114. In Hills reaction ____________ is formed
(a) Ferricyanide
(b) DCPIP
(c) Ferro cyanide
(d) Carbondioxide
115. Mobilization of stored food in germinating seeds in triggered by
(a) Auxins
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Ethylene
116. PEG is a
(a) Mutagen
(b) Sterilant
(c) Fusogen
(d) Nutrient
117. A good vector for plant biotechnology is
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Actinomycetes
(d) Baculovirus
118. A transgenic plant with nutritive improvement is
(a) Bt cotton
(b) Bt corn
(c) Golden rice
(d) Edible vaccine
119. The invitro plants are
(a) Autotrophic
(b) Heterotrophic
(c) Parasites
(d) Symbioti
120. This is needed to activate trypsinogen
(a) HCl
(b) Enterokinase
(c) Caseinogen
(d) Trypsin
121. Parasite mode of nutrition is seen in
(a) Bird’s embryo
(b) Reptilian embryo
(c) Amphibian embryo
(d) Mammalian embryo
122. The antihaemorrhagic vitamin is
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin K
123. This gives immediate energy to human body
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Lactose
124. Animal liver contains
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Cyanocobalamine
(c) Thiamine
(d) Nicotinic acid
125. The protein found in hair is
(a) Globular
(b) Conjugated
(c) Fibrous
(d) Denatured
126. The thermo regulating centre of the body is
(a) Pituitary
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Thyroid
(d) Cerbellum
127. This is both an endocrine and exocrine gland
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Pancreas
(d) Parathyroid
128. Ancon breed sheep are
(a) Homozygous dominant
(b) Homozygous recessive
(c) Heterozygous dominant
(d) Heterozygous recessive
129. The crossing of the F1 generation with a parental genotype is
(a) Test cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Multiple Cross
(d) Base cross
130. The female in humans are
(a) Heterogametic
(b) Hermaphrodite
(c) Homogametic
(d) both homogametic and heterogametic
131. Mutations are maximum in
(a) Conserved sequences
(b) Hotspots region
(c) Regulatory sequences
(d) All over the genome
132. The blood groups were discovered by
(a) Landsteiner
(b) Lewisford
(c) Wilkins
(d) Francis crick
133. Sex determination in man is similar to that of
(a) Benelia
(b) Drosophila
(c) Pigeon
(d) Crab
134. Placenta is
(a) Embryonic structure
(b) Extra embryonic
(c) Amphiembryonic
(d) Non cellular
135. Production of functional sperm is called
(a) Spermato genesis
(b) Spermio genesis
(c) Acrosomal modification
(d) Axiogenesis
136. The cleavage in mammalian ova is
(a) Simple holoblastic
(b) Heteroblastic
(c) Unique homoblastic
(d) Multiblastic
137. The largest lymphoid tissue is
(a) Spleen
(b) Liver
(c) Kidney
(d) Pancreas
138. Abnormal growth of adipose tissue
(a) Obesity
(b) Polyphagia
(c) Diabetes
(d) polyurea
139. Nocturnal periodicity is displayed by
(a) Wuchereria
(b) Clostridum
(c) Arbovirus
(d) Yersinia
140. Whooping cough is also known as
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Tetanus
(c) Pertussis
(d) Diptheria
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