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Posted Date: 22 Jan 2012      Posted By:: vibhor garg    Member Level: Bronze  Points: 5 (₹ 1)

2012 The Global Open University, Nagaland Medical M.Sc Physiotherapy Global open University MPT 1st year Paper of Manual Medicine and Applied Physiotherapy Question paper

Course: M.Sc Physiotherapy   University/board: The Global Open University, Nagaland

jan, 2012
Duration: 2 Hours
Course: MPT
Year: First Year
Paper Name: Manual Medicine and Applied

1) Brachio radialis is inserted in to
a. Styloid process –Lateral part
b. Styloid process –Medial part
c. Coronoid process of ulna
d. Radial tuerosity
2) Coronary artery arise from
a. heart
b. ascending aorta
c. arch of aorta
d. pulmonary trunk
3) Injury to the axillary nerve causes:
a. loss of supination.
b. loss of abduction
c. sensory deficit over medial arm
d. loss of pronation
4) The nerve responsible for the fine
movements of the hand is
a. radial nerve
b. median nerve
c. posterior interosseous nerve
d. ulnar nerve
5) Wrist drop is seen in palsy of
a. ulnar nerve
b. radial nerve
c. median nerve
d. A and B
6) Following an incised wound in the
form of the wrist patient is unable to
oppose the tips of the little finger and
thumb the nerves involved is the tips
of the little finger and thumb the
nerves involved is
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. median/ulnar nerve
d. radial/ulnar nerve
7) Motor supply of diaphragm is
a. thoraco dorsal
b. intercostal nerves
c. phrenic nerve
d. Symphathetic
8) 8.All of the following are true
regarding the pudendal nerve,
a. sensory and motor
b. derived fromS2, s3,s4
c. comes out from the lesser sciatic
d. main nerve supply of pelvic organs.
9) Which is the most sensitive
indicator of neurological status?
a. circulation
b. level of consciousness
c. motor function
d. eye opening
10) Which of the following is the
desired cerebral perfusion pressure?
a. 55 to 60 mm Hg
b. 65 to 70 mm Hg
c. 70 to 80 mm Hg
d. 80 to 90 mm Hg
11) Co-ordination of skeletal muscles
and equilibrium are controlled by the
a. Thalamus
b. Cerebellum
c. Hypothalamus
d. Medulla
12) Nerve to bell:
a. policeman's tip hand
b. Claw hand
d. Winging of the scapula
13) Which of the following bones is
considered a sesamoid bone?
a. sternum
b. ethmoid
c. phalanx
d. patella
14) Which cranial nerve arises from
dorsal aspect of
a. XII
b. IV
c. X
d. VI
15) Receptor for inverse stretch refer
a. NMJ
b. muscle spindle
c. ruffines end organ
d. Golgitendon organ
16) In thoracic spine, what type of
spinal motion?
a. flexion
b. lateral bending
c. thoracic spene is immobile
d. extention
17) The human skull consists of
a. 32 bones
b. 22 bones
c. 29 bones
d. 25 bones
18) The spinal cord in an adult ends
at the level of :
a. sacral 2
b. umbar 1
c. lumbar 5
d. lumbar 3
19) Which of these is not a superficial
a. Corneal reflex
b. jaw jerk
c. plantar reflex
d. abdominal reflex
20) In Parkinsonism, the lesion is due
a. subthalamic nucleus
b. caudate nucleus
c. substantia nigra
d. lateral thalamus
21) Where is the sinus node located
in the heart?
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. left ventricle
d. right ventricle
22) Which of the following exercises
are very useful of a low level
paraplegic patient?
a. parallel bar and wheel chair exercises
b. breathing exercises and mat exercises
c. crutch muscle exercises and parallel
bar exercises
d. bed bound exercises
23) Which of the following crutch
walking is most effective in
paraplegic patient?
a. 2 point gait
b. 3 point gait
c. drag to gait
d. 4 point gait
24) All of the following activities are
bed mobility in a spinal cord injury
patient except:
a. sitting to standing
b. lying to long sitting
c. rigt and left lateral rolling
d. situp to side to side
25) Which of the following activities
are useful recovery stages of stroke
a. rolling
b. sitting to standing
c. walking
d. bed bound activities
26) Which one is common type of
mobility exercise?
a. passive stretching
b. active inhibition
c. flexibility exercises
d. joint mobilization
27) What type of exercises most
effective for deep vein thrombosis?
a. Frenkel's exercises
b. Codman's exercises
c. Burger-Allen exerceses
d. William's exercises
28) What is the most advantage of
powder board exercises?
a. Increase muscle power
b. increase endurance
c. increase muscle strength
d. increase ROM
29) Which one is most effective for a
suspension therapy
a. mobilization of joints
b. strenthening of the muscle
c. increase range of motion
d. decrease ROM
30) Which of the following exercises
are most effective for cervical
spondylosis patient?
a. a.Isodynamic exercises
b. b.William's exercises
c. c.Isometric exercises
d. d.Isotonic exercises
31) All of the following materials are
used in resisted exercises, except:
a. Barbells
b. Dumbells
c. Sand bags
d. Velcro materials and pads
32) Endurance exercises states
about is a
a. low resistance high repetition
b. high resistance low repetition
c. low resistance and low repetition
d. constant resistance and high repetition
33) What is the most effective
stretching for contractile condition?
a. active stretching
b. passive stretching
c. passive sustained stretching
d. auto stretching
34) Which one is common
complication of over stretching?
a. Tendon"s tear
b. Muscle tear
c. nerve damage
d. fracture and dislocation
35) Which of the following technique
are most effective for relaxation?
a. Hold-relax technique
b. massage manipulation
c. biofeed back
d. stretching manueover and positioning
36) Which of the following
complication is not a amputation
a. Stump neuroma
b. Stump oedema
c. Phantom limb pain
d. Postural exercises
37) In an adult angle of inclination of
neck shaft of femur is
a. 1250
b. 1500
c. 1000
d. 1800
38) Which muscle is the principal
extensor of the thigh in upright
a. Hamstrings
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Iliopsoas
39) Paralysis of gluteus medius and
minimus muscles causes the well
a. trendelenburg sign
b. tripod's sign
c. gower's sign
d. tinel's sign
40) Which muscle paralysis the
patella might easily be dislocated
a. Vastus medialis
b. Rectus femoris
c. Vastus intermedius
d. A and B
41) The mid tarsal joint also known
a. talocrural joint
b. chopart"s joint
c. ginglymus joint
d. Pivot joint
42) Morton" s syndrome refers to:
a. a short first metatarsal
b. first and second metatarsal
c. a second metatarsal
d. third and fourth metatarsal
43) Head of radius articulataing with
a. capitulum
b. trochlea
c. coronoid
d. olecranon process
44) The normal degree of toe out is:
a. 10
b. 5
c. 25
d. 7
45) Which group muscles activity to
produce strong hind foot supination?
a. quadriceps
b. Hamstrings
c. gastrocnemius and soleus
d. plantaris
46) The most common painful
condition of the hip is due to
deterioration of the articular cartilage
known as
a. hip joint arthrosis
b. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
c. slipped capital femoral epiphysis
d. Osteoarthritis of the knee
47) The secondary curve of vertebral
column is
a. cervical
b. lumbar
c. A and B
d. thoracic and sacral
48) The smallest intervertebral disk
a. thoracic region
b. sacral region
c. lumbar region
d. cervical region
49) What type joint is most
frequently involved in chewing
talking and swallowing movements?
a. inter chondral joint
b. temporomandibular joint
c. mandibular joint
d. costostransverse joint
50) Which type of joint motioncan be
carried out purely translator
a. rocking motion
b. axial rotation
c. surface gliding
d. linear gliding
51) Which is a powerful inward
rotator of hip?
a. adductor longus
b. adductor magnus
c. adductor brevis
d. pectineus
52) The principal reinforcing
ligaments of the normal hip joint,
a. Ischiofemoral
b. pubofemoral
c. iliofemoral
d. collateral ligament
53) The normal position of the
acetabulum is
a. forward, lateral downward
b. backward, medial, upward
c. abduction, flexion, outward rotation
d. adduction, extension, inward rotation
54) Which muscle are serve to
adduct, medially rotateand extend
the humerus?
a. Latissimus dorsi and pectoral muscles
b. Teres major and latissimus dorssi,
c. Upper and lower trapezius and
serratus anterior
d. Infraspinatus teres minor and
55) Giglymus joint referred to
a. Hinge joint
b. Condyloid joint
c. ball and socket
d. plane joint
56) Which muscles are weakness in
backward trunk lean of the hip?
a. Gluteus medius
b. quadriceps
c. Gluteus minimus
d. gluteus maximus
57) Where is the location of the Golgi
tendon organ?
a. myotendinous junction
b. muscle spindle
c. alpha motor neuron
d. spinal cord
58) The primary stabilizer of the
elbow is
a. biceps muscle
b. posterior portion of the medial
collateral ligament
c. joint capsule
d. anterior portion of the ulnar collateral
59) Discourse on movement or the
science of movement of the body. The
term referred to
a. biomechanics
b. kinesiology
c. kinematics
d. kinetics
60) The most common reason for an
upper extremity amputation
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. peripheral vascular disease
c. trauma
d. congenital abnormality
61) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
characterized by
a. Oedema
b. pain
c. stiffness and trophic changes
d. all of the above
62) Achilles tendon rupture is
observed most commonly in which of
the following age groups?
a. 18 years
b. athletes aged 20 to 30 years
c. Individuals aged 30 to 50 years
d. above 50 to 60 years
63) The main functional
characteristics of the thumb spica
a. maintains 0 to 20 MCP flexion
b. supports the wrist in 15-30 of
c. Inhibits MCP flexion
d. promotes closing of the thumb
64) The technique of nervolus tissue
mobili9zation is introduced by
a. Mait land
b. Buttler
c. Cyriax
d. Kaltenborne
65) Which of the following conditions
Tinel sign is positive?
a. muscle injury
b. blood vessel injury
c. ligament injury
d. peripheral nerve injury
66) Injury to the lateral cord of
brachial plexus would most likely
involves damage to the ______nerve
a. Ulnar nerve
b. axillary nerve
c. musculocutaneous nerve
d. radial nerve
67) A patient with osteoarthritis
develops a knee effusion, which
physiotherapy modality should not be
used over the knee?
a. Hot packs
b. Ice massage
c. Infrared rays
d. microwave
68) The commonest Benign tumour is
a. Chondrosarcom
b. Osteochondroma
c. Osteiodosteoma
d. Ostreosarcoma
69) Ligamentous injuries are
commonly, which joint structure?
a. Tempromandibular
b. wrist
c. shoulder
d. ankle
70) Thomas test is one of indication
a. fixed adduction deformity of hip
b. fixed abduction deformity of hip
c. fixed flexion deformity of hip
d. fixed flexion deformity of knee

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